Sample
Bar Examination Questions
of the Republic of New Lemuria Board of Bar Examiners
Torts
|
Criminal Law & Procedure |
Constitutional Law
Torts Answers
|
Criminal Law &
Procedure Answers |
Constitutional Law Answers
The Republic of New Lemuria is a common law nation that adheres to
ecclesiastic law, in the absence of statutory or common law
authority or precedent. Members of the Republic of New Lemuria Bar
Association often practice before the Republic of New Lemuria Permanent
Court of Arbitration, which is an international dispute resolution tribunal.
Because the vast majority of disputes heard before the Permanent
Court of Arbitration occur within the United States and other common
law jurisdictions, the Republic of New Lemuria Bar Examination predominantly
includes U.S. Constitutional questions, common law questions and
fact patterns that may be characteristic to the United States. Applicants should
expect additional Constitutional questions relating to the
Constitution and laws of the Republic of New Lemuria. The bar
examination consists of 100 multiple choice and essay questions for
each of the following test areas: 1) Torts; 2) Criminal
Law & Procedure; and 3) Constitutional Law. Proficiency
in Ecclesiastic Law is tested through oral and essay examinations,
the results of which represent 25% of the applicant's overall test
score.
Torts
Question 1
is based on the following fact situation.
Paul
Jackson, a candidate for a city counsel position in the City of
Southland, was present in town square on September 21. The
City of Southland had a tradition of allowing candidates for the
office of city council the privilege to present a short speech on
this date for the purpose of informing interested members of the
public on the points of view which each candidate holds.
Several candidates delivered their speeches. Paul Jackson then
presented his five minute speech. After Paul Jackson had
delivered his speech he went back to resume his seat which was on
the stage about ten feet behind the podium. Tom Dullard, an
opposing candidate who was sitting in the seat next to Paul Jackson's assigned seat, decided that it would be entertaining to
pull Jackson's chair out from under him. As Jackson began to
sit down, Dullard pulled the chair out causing Jackson to fall to the
stage floor. Jackson suffered no injuries but he was deeply
humiliated over the incident.
1. If Jackson brings a tort action against
Dullard, Jackson
will probably recover on which of the following theories?
(A)
Intentional infliction of emotional distress
(B)
Assault
(C)
Battery
(D)
No recovery
Question 2
is based on the following fact situation.
The
eleventh grade class of Southland High School went to Flightline
Avionics on a class field trip. During lunch the school
administrator provided the students some time to eat at the
cafeteria located on the premises. Alice, the class clown,
decided to pull another prank. As Bonnie was attempting to sit
down with a tray of food, Alice pulled Bonnie's chair from
beneath her. Bonnie fell to the floor.
2. Which tort is most applicable under these facts?
(A)
Assault
(B)
Battery
(C)
Negligent infliction of emotional distress
(D)
Intentional infliction of emotional distress
Questions 3 - 5
are based on the following fact situation.
Boss
and Colleague were both white collar workers who were employed by
firms located in downtown Southland. Both Boss and Colleague
were late for work on Tuesday morning. As such, they each were
traveling at an excessive rate of speed toward their respective
places of business. Boss was traveling down Second Street,
only seven blocks from his office, at a speed of forty-five miles
per hour. The posted speed was thirty miles per hour. As
Boss approached the intersection of Second Street and Gilbert
Avenue, Colleague also approached the same intersection.
Colleague was traveling north on Gilbert Avenue to get to work that
morning. Colleague was also speeding and witnesses estimated
his speed to be somewhere between forty and fifty miles per hour.
The posted speed on Gilbert Avenue was thirty miles per hour.
The
two cars collided at the intersection of Second and Gilbert.
Colleague's Buick Skylark hit Boss's Ford Escort causing Boss to
swerve out of control into Pedro's produce cart parked at the side of
the road. Both Pedro and his merchandise suffered extensive
injuries. The jury found that the accident was caused due to
the inattentiveness of both drivers with Boss 40% negligent and
Colleague 60% negligent.
3. If the jurisdiction follows the doctrine of "pure"
comparative negligence, and Colleague suffered $10,000 in damages,
what will Colleague recover in a suit against Boss?
(A)
$10,000
(B)
$6,000
(C)
$4,000
(D)
Nothing
4.
If this jurisdiction follows the doctrine of "modified" comparative
negligence, and Colleague suffered $10,000 in damages, what will
Colleague recover in a suit against Boss?
(A)
$10,000
(B)
$6,000
(C)
$4,000
(D)
Nothing
5. Assume for the purposes of this question that
Pedro has a claim for
damages against both Boss and Colleague and that he obtains a
judgment for the full amount of his damages from Colleague.
Which theory will now allow Colleague to pursue Boss in order to
have Boss pay for part of the damages?
(A)
Subrogation
(B)
Collateral sources rule
(C)
Contribution
(D)
Indemnity
TORTS ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
1. (A) Intentional infliction of emotional
distress, answer choice (A) is the best answer. Although
it is correct that Dullard has committed both a battery and the
tort of intentional infliction of emotional distress we must
look to the degree or severity of the conduct. First of
all, choice (D) is incorrect because (A) is correct.
Answer choice (B) is not correct because Jackson did not suffer
from an imminent apprehension of a harmful or offensive contact.
Answer choice (C) is correct to the extent that a harmful or
offensive contact occurred, but answer (A) is the better answer
as Dullard's conduct was extreme and outrageous. Dullard's
conduct constitutes the intentional infliction of emotional
distress because it occurred in front of interested voters who
attended the candidate speeches and because it was extreme and
outrageous.
2. (B) Battery is the most probable tort for
which Bonnie may be able to assert in a suit for recovery against
Alice. Battery consists of the harmful and offensive
touching of plaintiff's person. "Plaintiff's person"
includes anything connected with plaintiff's body. The
freedom
from intentional and unpermitted contact extends not
only to any part of the body but also to anything which is
attached to the body or identified with the body. Thus,
the pulling of Bonnie's chair, causing her to fall to the floor,
constitutes a battery. Note that this fact pattern must be
distinguished from the fact pattern which describes conduct
which may be characterized as "extreme" and "outrageous."
In these questions, the degree or severity of Defendant's tortious conduct will determine whether plaintiff will most
likely prevail under a theory of battery or under a theory of
intentional infliction of emotional distress.
3. (C) Under the theory of "pure" comparative
negligence a negligent plaintiff can still recover even where
his negligence exceeds that of the Defendant. "Pure"
comparative negligence allows recovery no matter how great
plaintiff's negligence. Under the facts presented in this question, you are
told that the jurisdiction follows a system of "pure"
comparative negligence. Thus, if Colleague brings suit
against Boss for $10,000 and the jury determines that Colleague
is 60% negligent, Colleague would still be able to recover
$10,000 minus the percentage of his negligence (60% of $10,000),
or $4,000. Therefore, answer (C) is correct.
4. (D) Colleague may recover nothing under
these facts if the jurisdiction follows a "modified" comparative
negligence system. Under a theory of "modified"
comparative negligence the negligent plaintiff may recover so
long as his negligence is not equal to or greater than that of
the Defendant. No recovery will be allowed if the
plaintiff's negligence is equal to or greater than Defendant's
negligence. Under these facts, the jury found that Boss
was 40% negligent and Colleague was 60% negligent. Since
Colleague (the plaintiff here) was 60% negligent and Boss (the
Defendant here) was only 40% negligent, Colleague may recover
nothing. Answer (D) is correct.
5. (C) Contribution allows a Defendant to claim
recovery of damages against other jointly liable parties for
excess damages when that Defendant is required to pay more than
his share of damages. Answer (C) is correct.
Contribution apportions responsibility among those at fault.
In a comparative negligence system, apportionment is in
proportion to the relative fault of the Defendants. Answer
choice (A) is incorrect because one Defendant is not being
substituted for another and responsibility for the entire loss
and all damages may not be placed upon Boss. Answer choice
(B) is incorrect because this rule will not act to shift
responsibility for damages from Colleague to Boss. The
collateral sources rule provides that a Defendant tortfeasor may
not benefit from the fact that plaintiff has received money from
other sources. This rule does not help Colleague.
Finally, choice (D) is incorrect because indemnity involves
shifting of the entire loss from one tortfeasor to another.
Indemnity is not available under these facts where both Boss and
Colleague were negligent.
CRIMINAL LAW AND PROCEDURE
Question Outline
1. Larceny
2. Arson
3. Federal Jurisdiction
4. Depraved-Heart Murder
5. Voluntary Manslaughter
6. Involuntary Manslaughter
7. Voluntary Manslaughter
8. Assault As Attempted Battery
9. False Pretenses
10. False Pretenses
11. False Pretenses
12. Felony Murder
13. Parties To A Crime
14. Duress Defense
15. Murder
16. Custodial Interrogation
17. Probable Cause
18. Confessions
19. Self Incrimination
20. Miranda
21. Plain Error
22. Harmless Error
23. Harmless Error
24. Harmless Error
25. Duty To Correct False Testimony
26. Burden Of Production
27. Miranda Questioning
28. Self Incrimination
29. Right Of Confrontation
30. Standing
31. Right To Counsel
32. Right To Counsel
33. Accomplice Liability
34. Accomplice Liability
35. Felony Murder
36. Felony Murder
37. Self Defense
38. Intoxication
39. Inchoate Crimes
40. Conspiracy
41. Criminal Jurisdiction
42. Burglary
43. Burglary- Intent To Commit A Felony
44. Presumption Of Innocence
45. Beyond A Reasonable Doubt
46. Bad Check Statutes
47. Murder
48. Felony Murder
49. Insanity Defense
50. Bifurcated Trial
51. Capital Punishment
52. Larceny
53. Larceny
54. Larceny
55. Larceny- Personal Property Of Another
56. Larceny- Asportation
57. Larceny- Personal Property Of Another
58. False Pretenses
59. Receiving Stolen Property
60. Accomplice Liability
61. Confessions As Fruits Of Illegal Arrests And Searches
62. Double Jeopardy
63. Waiver Of The Right To Counsel
64. Pretrial Discovery- Duty To Disclose
65. Miranda- Required Warnings
66. Automobile Stop
67. Automobile Search
68. "Target" Standing
69. Right To A Speedy Trial
70. Acquittal Or Dismissal
71. Double Jeopardy- Conviction
72. Double Jeopardy- Evidence Insufficiency
73. Suppression Hearing- Burden Of Proof
74. Indigency Standards
75. Conflicts Of Interest
76. Habeas Procedures
77. Principal In The Second Degree
78. Parties To A Crime
79. Conspiracy And Accomplice Liability
80. Conspiracy- Mental State
81. Involuntary Manslaughter
82. Felony Murder Rule
83. Voluntary Manslaughter
84. "Depraved-Heart" Murder
85. "Depraved-Heart" Murder
86. Defense Of Insanity
87. Defense Of Insanity
88. Murder
89. Theft Crimes
90. Degrees Of Homicide
91. "Depraved-Heart" Murder
92. Solicitation
93. Solicitation
94. Motive
95. Robbery- Common Law
96. Robbery- Statutory
97. Robbery- Homicide Victim
98. Bigamy
99. Criminal and Civil Contempt
100. Retribution
CRIMINAL LAW AND PROCEDURE
Question 1
is based on the following fact situation.
1. In which of the following fact situations is
Defendant Johnson most likely to be found guilty of the crime of
larceny?
(A) Johnson, with the intent to steal
Bill's Afghan rug,
travels to Bill's house and, finding the front door unlocked,
enters Bill's living room where Johnson knows Bill keeps the
Afghan rug. Unbeknownst to Johnson, Bill had taken the rug to
Martha's gallery for a ten day Rare Art Exhibit. Johnson sits down in
Bill's living room and watches a 30 minute
television program and then quietly leaves Bill's house.
(B) Johnson a grocery clerk at check stand five of
Crocker Grocery Store was on duty on Saturday, May 15.
Johnson had
been experiencing hard times lately because his wife had
divorced him and he was trying to make payments on his house and
car and also keep up with his child support obligations.
Gertrude, a customer at Crocker Grocery Store, purchased various
items amounting to the total of seventeen dollars and sixty-five
cents. Gertrude gave Johnson a twenty-dollar bill for the
groceries. Johnson placed the twenty-dollar bill on top of
the register and then returned two dollars and thirty-five cents
to Gertrude. Before Johnson turned to put the twenty-dollar
bill into the cash register he decided that he needed the cash
for himself. Johnson surreptitiously pocketed the twenty in
his pants pocket. Johnson took the twenty home with him that
day.
(C) Johnson, with the intent to steal
Jane's new
fox hair coat, travels to Jane's house and enters through a side
window after breaking it. Unfortunately, Jane had
decided to wear her fox hair coat to the ball that evening.
After Johnson saw that the fox hair coat was not there he remembered
that Jane said something about going out that evening.
Johnson decided to wait until Jane returned home so he could
then overpower her and take the coat from her.
Johnson
went to the kitchen, prepared a sandwich, ate it, played cards,
and awaited Jane's return. By 11:30 p.m. Johnson, tired
of waiting for Jane, decided to leave. He left through
the open broken window.
(D) Johnson, with the intent to steal, always had his eye
on Harry's 1995 Chevrolet Camaro. Several weeks went by
and then one day Harry decided that maybe before he
actually stole Harry's car it might be better if he knew exactly
what the car was like. Johnson believed that it would be a
waste of time to steal a car that could not handle nicely around
curves in the road, or that could not go at least 70 m.p.h. on
the highway. With that, Johnson asked Harry if he could
borrow Harry's Chevy. Harry, without hesitation, agreed,
but added, "Please have it back by 12:00 midnight because
I worry about my new car." Johnson said, "No
problem." Johnson took the car but kept it out all
night and did not return it until 9:30 a.m. the next morning.
Question 2
is based on the following fact situation.
Mike and Gary were competitors in the car rental business.
Mike's business was fairly large and he operated it out of a
commercial lot located at the Southland Airport. Gary, on
the other hand, was just starting out. Gary had only six
cars which he rented out. Gary's business was done out of
his house with up to three cars parked in the garage to his
house and the remaining cars parked outside of his house
alongside the garage. Of course, there were occasions when
all of Gary's cars were rented and he had none on his property
at all. Mike knew that Gary's business was increasing and
that this was putting a dent in the rental market. Mike
vowed to put Gary out of business or at least cripple his
efforts to rent cars.
At 10 p.m. on last Tuesday evening,
Mike went to Gary's house
with the specific intent to commit felony crimes, including the
common law crimes of larceny, robbery, or arson, and also
competitive advantage, a statutory felony in this jurisdiction.
Mike jumped the side fence to Gary's house and proceeded straight
to the back door of Gary's attached garage. Finding the
door open, Mike didn't hesitate to enter. Once inside,
Mike
thought about stealing the automobiles which were in Gary's
garage. There were two autos parked inside the garage and
the keys were on a key board located on the wall. Just
before Mike picked up the keys, he spotted a five gallon gas can
sitting on the floor. A light bulb flashed in Mike's head.
He thought for a moment and then concluded that he could only
drive one car away. On the other hand, if he was to burn
Gary's car, garage, and house, he might be able to force Gary
out of business. With that, Mike quickly poured gasoline
out of the can. But just after Mike began pouring the
gasoline he heard a noise from inside the living room. It
sounded like footsteps. Mike panicked. He quickly
took a match out of his pocket, lit the match, and threw it at
the small puddle of gasoline on the ground. The gasoline
did catch fire, but it only created a flame that was large
enough to scorch the wall and burn a section of Gary's work
bench. Mike ran out the back door and headed for home.
Immediately after Mike got out the back door, Gary went into the
garage, saw the small fire, and quickly put it out with the fire
extinguisher which he kept nearby.
2. If
Mike is charged with common law arson only, how
should the court rule?
(A)
Guilty, but only if the fire had burned Gary's dwelling house.
(B)
Guilty, because the fire Mike set was sufficient to constitute
common law arson.
(C)
Not guilty, but only if the fire did not burn Gary's dwelling
house.
(D)
Not guilty, because Gary put the fire out.
Question 3
is based on the following fact situation.
Betty booked a flight on a SOUTHLAND AIR airplane which was scheduled to
fly from Los Angeles to San Francisco on Friday, February 16.
Betty was a businesswoman who infrequently took airplane trips
within California to attend business meetings and other
work-related events. On this particular day Betty arrived
at the airport in Los Angeles with plenty of time to catch the
plane. Betty, being very nervous about her meeting in San
Francisco, was smoking fervently the entire morning.
At 12:50 p.m. the plane, loaded with passengers, raced down the
runway bound for San Francisco. The stewardess informed
all passengers about some safety precautions and also stated
that the flight would only be 52 minutes in duration.
Betty, feeling nervous and apprehensive about the meeting, made
her way to the lavatory located in the rear of the plane.
Since the lavatory was unoccupied, Betty went right in.
While using the lavatory facilities, Betty noticed a sign
which stated, "Smoking Is Prohibited On This Flight."
Betty
also noticed another sign which read, "Tampering With Lavatory
Smoke Alarms Is A Crime. Violators Will Be Punished."
Believing that a cigarette might calm her nerves,
Betty
immediately produced a cigarette from her purse and lit it.
As Betty was enjoying the renewed and momentary relaxation which
the nicotine gave her, the lavatory smoke alarm sounded. A
chill went down Betty's spine. Immediately thereafter, a
stewardess was banging on the outside of the lavatory door
demanding that Betty open it. Betty complied and was
immediately arrested by the airline employee. When Betty
arrived in San Francisco the stewardess led Betty to the
SOUTHLAND AIR
boarding counter where two Federal Agents, working out of the
San Francisco International Airport Office, handcuffed Betty and
informed her that she was being charged with the violation of a
federal statute which read, "It shall be a federal crime for any
person to smoke any material on an airline flight when such
airline has informed said person that 'Smoking Is Prohibited On
This Flight.'"
As a result of the charge against her,
Betty has been summoned
into Federal Court, located in San Francisco, California.
All of Betty's appearances have been made in San Francisco even
though Betty resides in Los Angeles, California. At Betty's
initial court appearance she argued that she could not be
charged with the violation of the federal statute and be
summoned into Federal Court because she did not know that what
she was charged with was a violation of federal law.
3. If the judge properly holds
Betty to answer the
charges against her it will be because
(A) Lack of knowledge regarding federal territorial
jurisdiction will not relieve one of being held to answer for a
charged violation of federal statute.
(B) Lack of knowledge regarding federal territorial
jurisdiction is only a defense to a specific intent crime.
(C) Betty may be properly held to answer for the charged
violation in the territorial jurisdiction in which she is
alleged to have committed the crime.
(D) Betty has no right to object to the territorial
jurisdiction in which she is summoned to answer for the charged
offense.
Question 4 is based
on the following fact situation.
Tommy just finished drinking four Gin Martinis at Bill's Bar.
It was twelve noon. Bill didn't know that Tommy had
already consumed two shots of whisky before he arrived at Bill's
Bar at 11:40 a.m. that Monday morning. When Tommy had
finished his drinks he thanked Bill and headed for the door.
While making his way for the car, Tommy thought about how much
he hated his job, his home, and his life. Tommy repeated
to himself the words, "Life sucks!" All of his depression
was attributed to his girlfriend leaving him three days earlier.
Tommy knew it. He didn't want to admit it. He tried
to blame his depression on other things but he knew deep down
inside that it was Gertrude that was getting him down. He was
having a hard time resigning himself to the fact that she was
gone.
Just then it dawned on
Tommy that he had to be at work.
He quickly jumped into his car and sped off. Tommy was
intoxicated but he didn't realize that he was driving at
excessive speeds and in an erratic manner. Tommy worked
in Houston, Texas. As he was traveling through town on his
way to work he decided to run a few stop signs and red lights
"to save a little time." As Tommy was traveling at a
speed of approximately sixty-five miles per hour he saw a Mazda
RX-7 automobile appear in the intersection before him.
Tommy had no time to stop. He hit the Mazda automobile.
The Mazda, in turn, went careening into a few people who were
crossing the street. Lori Streetwalker, a thirty-six-year old
woman, was one person who was crossing the street. Lori
died immediately. Several other people were severely
injured and required hospitalization. Tommy walked away
with only minor bruises, and a pair of handcuffs. The
Houston City Police Department arrested Tommy and has taken him
into custody.
4. Which legal theory of criminal liability would be
most applicable under the circumstances?
(A)
Murder
(B)
Depraved-heart murder
(C)
Involuntary manslaughter
(D)
Battery
Questions 5 - 7
are based on the following fact situations. Read each fact
situation and then choose the most serious offense for which the
Defendant may properly be convicted. Your choices are
(A)
Murder
(B)
Felony murder
(C)
Voluntary manslaughter
(D)
Involuntary manslaughter
5. Defendant and Neighbor are neighbors in an apartment
building. Neither has liked the other very much.
Defendant especially dislikes Neighbor because Defendant
believes that Neighbor, a single woman, is trying to steal the
love and affection of Defendant's husband away from her.
One day the two of them get into a mutual disagreement and
fight. During the fight Defendant forms the intent to kill
Neighbor. Defendant quickly grabs a crescent wrench which
was lying nearby and strikes three quick blows to Neighbor's
head. Neighbor dies before the ambulance arrives.
6.
When Joe refused to pay a gambling debt he owed to Mark, Mark
told Joe that he knew members of a gang and that he would have
them kill Joe. Both Mark and Joe are adults. Mark then contacted
Ron and Sam, both age 15 and members of a local gang. Mark asked
them to give Joe a severe beating but expressly told them not to
use weapons.
Two days later, while
looking for Joe, Ron and Sam, who were unarmed, saw him getting
into his car in a parking lot. They began to run toward Joe. Joe
saw them running toward him and noticed they were wearing
bandanas indicative of gang membership. Thinking that Mark had
sent them to kill him, Joe reached in the glove compartment of
his car for a handgun and shot at Ron and Sam, wounding both.
Although Joe explained Mark's threat to the police, he was
arrested and charged with two counts of assault in the first
degree. Ron and Sam were also arrested and charged with
attempted assault.
Based on Joe's explanation
and statements given to the police by Ron and Sam, Mark was
arrested and charged with conspiracy and criminal solicitation.
Based on the foregoing
facts:
(A)
If Joe raises the defense of justification, is it likely to be
successful?
(B)
(1) Did the actions of Ron and Sam
constitute the crime of attempt to commit an assault?
(2)
If so, do Ron and Sam have any defenses?
(C)
Did Mark commit the crimes of (1) conspiracy and (2) criminal
solicitation?
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CRIMINAL
LAW AND PROCEDURE ANSWERS
AND
EXPLANATIONS
1. (C)
Johnson is guilty of larceny only in
hypothetical fact pattern (C) above. Thus, answer choice
(C) is the correct answer. In fact pattern (C), Johnson
committed larceny when he ate a sandwich which belonged to
Jane. Under the common law, larceny consisted of (1)
the trespassory taking, (2) and carrying away (3) of the
personal property (4) of another (5) with the specific intent to
steal the same. Answer choice (A) is incorrect because
Johnson never obtained any personal property of another, nor did
he carry any property away. Answer choice (B) is incorrect
because Johnson would be guilty of the crime of embezzlement,
rather than larceny, when he took his employer's property.
Answer choice (D) is incorrect because Johnson merely borrowed the
car and had no intent to steal it, or permanently deprive the
owner of the property.
2. (B) The correct answer under these facts is
answer choice (B) which states that Mike should be found guilty
of common law arson. Under the common law, arson consisted
of the (1) malicious (2) burning (3) of the dwelling house (4)
of another. Students should also remember the rule that
the slightest charring is sufficient to satisfy the "burning"
element. Furthermore, Gary's garage is attached to the
house. This "structure," including Gary's house and
garage, is considered Gary's "dwelling house." Once the
flame scorched the wall, the crime of arson was completed.
Students should also note that the crime of burglary was not
present under these facts as there was no "breaking" present.
Because the fire here burned Gary's dwelling house, answer
choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect.
3. (A) Knowledge of federal territorial
jurisdictional boundaries is not a defense to this federal
criminal statute. The fact that Betty did not know that it
was a federal crime to smoke on the plane as she did will not
relieve her of liability for violation of this federal criminal
statute. Unless the statute clearly states that the mental
state must include knowledge of federal territorial boundaries,
or that the act is a federal crime, this knowledge, or lack
thereof, is not relevant and does not need to be proved by the
prosecution, nor does it constitute a defense which the
Defendant may use. Very rarely, if ever, will a federal
criminal statute specify that the Defendant must have this
specific intent or knowledge. Commonly the federal statute
merely states what act is made criminal and the possible
punishment. In these situations, lack of knowledge
regarding federal territorial jurisdiction will not relieve one
from being held to answer for a charged violation of federal
law. Thus, answer (A) is correct. Answer choices
(B), (C), and (D) are all incorrect answer picks as they are
either incorrect statements of law, or are false statements
under these facts.
4. (B) Under these circumstances the most
applicable legal theory would be depraved-heart murder.
Answer choice (B) is correct. LaFave and Scott state that
"Extremely negligent conduct, which creates what a reasonable
man would realize to be not only an unjustifiable but also a
very high degree of risk of death or serious bodily injury to
another or to others - though unaccompanied by any intent to
kill or do serious bodily injury - and which actually causes the
death of another, may constitute murder." LaFave and
Scott, Criminal Law, at p. 617. Furthermore, in the
case of State vs. Snyder (1984) 311 N.C. 391, 317 S.E.2d
394, it was held that the Defendant's driving of an automobile
at the speed of sixty to seventy miles per hour involved a type
of danger which could be classified as sufficient to constitute
"depraved-heart murder." Answer (B) is the most correct
answer according to the above discussion. Answer choice
(A) could be argued as correct because Tommy's actions
constituted a type of murder, but answer choice (B) is more
specific; for that reason, it is preferred. Answer choice
(C) is incorrect because Tommy's actions have "gone beyond" the
unreasonable risk of injury or the grossly negligent conduct
which is required for manslaughter liability. Answer
choice (D) is incorrect because Tommy's actions have gone
beyond a mere battery for the reasons just mentioned.
5.
(C) Defendant will be guilty of voluntary manslaughter under
these facts. Voluntary manslaughter is an intentional killing
but it is mitigated down from murder, usually because it is
committed while in the "heat of passion." Answer choice (C) is
correct. In a situation in which two persons engage in a fight
and where the intent to kill is formed during the fight, the correct
charge is that of voluntary manslaughter. It is important to
note that this homicide would be considered murder, but for the fact
that the intent to kill was formed during the fight or struggle and
the Defendant performed the death-producing blow while in the heat
of passion. Answer choice (A) is incorrect because Defendant's
act is not murder. Murder is defined as the unlawful killing
of another human being with malice aforethought. Most
jurisdictions today recognize various types of murder but they all
have the common thread of the mental element of "malice" and they
all require that this mental element be formulated, or planned, some
time in advance of, and prior to, the killing. Answer choice
(B) is incorrect because there is no felony murder under these
facts. Under the common law there were certain enumerated
felonies, such as burglary, larceny, arson, rape, and robbery, which
were required to be either attempted or committed by the Defendant
for felony murder to apply. Finally, answer choice (D) is
incorrect because Defendant's conduct, under the facts of this
problem, was intentional. Defendant's conduct did not merely
constitute the commission of an unlawful act, or the commission of
an unlawful act constituting a high probability of death or serious
bodily injury. Defendant's conduct here was intentional.
The facts state that "During the fight Defendant forms the
intent to kill Neighbor." This is an intentional killing.
Involuntary manslaughter is not applicable under these facts.
6.
(A) The issue here is whether Joe can raise a defense of self defense when
he used deadly force to repel those he believed were attempting to kill him.
In New York, generally a person is guilty of a homicide if the act with the
intent to kill another human being. Generally, this is punishable but the
defendant may raise certain affirmative defenses. The defendant bears the burden
of proving an affirmative defense via a preponderance of the evidence. One of
these defenses is self defense. Generally, self defense allows one threatened
with the use of force against his person or property may defend against the use
of such force with force. When deadly force is used (such as by shooting a gun
with the intent to hit the other person), it is only justified when threatened
with deadly force against the person. The standard used is that of a reasonable
person. Deadly force is never justified to be used for the protection of
property. Also, generally a person has the duty to retreat before using deadly
force if a person can safely do so. There are however certain exceptions to this
duty to retreat, for instance when a person is in his own home and was not the
initial aggressor in a confrontation.
In this case Joe acted with deadly force in shooting Ron and Sam. Although he
did not kill them, shooting at them with a firearm and wounding them is clearly
sufficient. For Joe's actions to be justified, Sam and Ron must have been
threatening him with deadly force. Joe's belief that they were there to kill him
based on a prior threat is not enough. Here, Ron and Sam did nothing other than
run at Joe. There is no indication that they possessed or brandished any dory of
deadly weapon. Therefore, this action is not enough for a reasonable belief that
Joe was being threatened with deadly force.
Also, since Joe was not in his home and does not fit into any of the other
exceptions, Joe had a duty to retreat before using deadly force if he could do
so in a safe manner. The facts here state that Joe was getting into his car when
the confrontation occurred. It seems therefore that he would be able to safely
retreat. This also leads to the conclusion that Joe was not justified in using
deadly force. Therefore, Joe could not use the defense of justification.
(B) (1) The issue here is whether Ron and Sam had committed enough
of a significant step toward the completion of an assault to justify a charge of
attempt.
Generally, a defendant can be charged with an attempt to complete a crime when
he has the intent to complete the crime and has completed a significant step
towards completion of the crime. Mere preparation is not enough however. The
defendant must be judged to be dangerously close to completion of the crime.
Thus, to be convicted of attempted assault the defendants must have had the
intent to commit assault, which involves the impermissible touching of or
offense with another, and complete a significant step towards that goal.
Here, Ron and Sam were asked to give a severe beating to Joe. If completed, this
action would involve impermissible touching of Joe and thus would constitute
assault. Thus, one can state that they had the requisite intent required for an
attempt conviction. The question then arises whether the actions of searching
for someone and then running toward them is enough to be a significant step
toward completion. Given the facts, the act of running toward someone is past
the stages of mere planning or preparation and part of the execution. It also
serves to intimidate the witness and put a fear of bodily harm in him. Thus, in
this case the defendants acted with the requisite intent to complete the crime
of assault and completed a significant step in the commission of that crime.
Thus, they could be found guilty of attempt to commit an assault.
(2) The issue here is whether Ron and Sam can claim incompetency because they
are age 15.
In New York, generally people are held liable for their actions, but in some
cases they may be judged incompetent. One of these is when they are underage.
Generally, New York treats those aged 16 or older as adults in criminal cases,
can convict those 14 and 15 of serious crimes, and those 13, 14 and 15 of second
degree murder. Those younger than these ages must be dealt with via juvenile
proceedings.
Here, Ron and Sam are 15. Thus, they can only be convicted if they are charged
with second degree murder or a "serious crime." Since murder is not applicable
here, the question is whether attempt to commit assault is a serious offense.
While they did not have any weapons, which works in their favor, they intended
to give someone a "severe beating." This would seem enough to satisfy the
question and thus Ron and Sam could be tried as adults.
(C) (1) The issue is whether Mark committed conspiracy.
To be convicted of conspiracy; (i) a defendant must have had a meeting of the
minds to engage in criminal behavior with another person or persons, and (ii)
someone in the conspiracy must have committed a step in furtherance of the
conspiracy's goals. A defendant in NY can still be convicted even if the others
in the conspiracy do not have the requisite intent to complete the crime.
Here, Mark reached an agreement with Ron and Sam for them to beat Joe. This is a
sufficient intent and meeting of the minds to engage in the criminal behavior of
assault. The fact that Ron and Sam are underage does not save Mark since even if
they were judged incompetent in New York, Mark can still be convicted for having
the requisite intent. Ron and Sam then sought out Joe so that they could give
him the beating (and ran at him when they found him). This is enough to satisfy
the step in furtherance of the conspiracy. It need not be Mark that completes
the step, merely someone in the conspiracy. Thus, Mark can be convicted for
conspiracy.
(2) The issue is whether Mark can be convicted for solicitation.
Someone can be convicted for solicitation when they approach another with the
intent of inducing the other person to engage in criminal behavior.
Here, Mark
sought out Ron and Sam to convince them to give Joe a severe beating. Giving Joe
a beating would constitute assault. Therefore, Mark can be convicted of
soliciting Ron and Sam.
CONSTITUTIONAL LAW
Question Outline
1. Federal Commerce Power
2. Powers Of Congress
3. Equal Protection Clause- Suspect Classification
4. Equal Protection- Right To Marry
5. Powers Of Congress
6. State Police Powers
7. State Police Powers
8. Commerce Clause
9. Powers Of Congress
10. Federal Jurisdiction
11. Privileges And Immunities Clause
12. Due Process Clause
13. Fifth Amendment
14. Standing
15. Ripeness
16. Impeachment
17. Commercial Speech Doctrine
18. Commercial Speech Doctrine
19. Commercial Speech Doctrine
20. Political Affiliation
21. Use Immunity
22. Article IV, Section 2
23. Fourteenth Amendment
24. Commerce Clause
25. Vagueness
26. Defamation- Right Of Reply
27. State And Local Taxation
28. Stream Of Commerce
29. Commerce Clause
30. State Police Powers
31. Freedom Of Religion
32. Freedom Of Religion
33. Due Process Clause
34. Free Exercise Clause- Factors
35. Freedom Of Religion- Free Exercise Clause
36. Freedom Of Religion- Free Exercise Clause
37. Ex Post Facto Law
38. Bill Of Attainder
39. The Thirteenth Amendment
40. State Action
41. Eleventh Amendment
42. Suit Between States
43. Freedom Of Association
44. Equal Protection
45. Contract Clause
46. Federal Commerce Power
47. Treaty
48. Book Banning
49. Censorial Laws
50. Redrup Approach
51. Freedom Of Association
52. Freedom Of Association
53.
Right Not To Colleague
54. Mandatory Fees
55. Equal Protection- Drug Testing
56. Right To Privacy- Drug Testing
57. Separation Of Powers
58. Right To Vote
59. Voting- Strict Scrutiny
60. Freedom Of Association
61. Freedom Of Religion
62. Constitutional Arguments- Anti-Sleeping Ordinances
63. Right To Privacy- Drug Testing
64. Equal Protection
65. Right To Privacy- Factors To Weigh
66. Vagueness
67. Comparison Of Preemption With Commerce Clause
68. Commerce Clause- Least Restrictive Alternative
69. President's Attempt To Regulate Interstate Commerce
70. Equal Protection- Race Classifications
71. Equal Protection- Gender Classifications
72. Equal Protection Classifications
73. Tenth Amendment
74. Voting Amendments
75. Voting- Fundamental Right
76. Legitimate State Interest
77. Commerce Clause- Burden On Interstate Commerce
78. Standing
79. Free Exercise Clause
80. Free Exercise Clause
81. Privileges And Immunities Clause
82. Privileges And Immunities Clause
83. Right To Travel
84. State Action
85. Privileges And Immunities Clause
86. Aliens- Equal Protection
87. Aliens- Important Government Interest
88. Aliens- Practice Of A Profession
89. Speech Or Debate Clause
90. Necessary Or Proper Clause
91. Power To Declare War
92. Full Faith And Credit Clause
93. Interstate Rendition Clause
94. Supremacy Clause
95. Military Courts
96. Federal Property
97. Equal Protection- Illegitimacy
98. Contract Clause
99. State Police Power
100. Commerce Clause
CONSTITUTIONAL LAW
Question 1
is based on the following fact situation.
Florida Airlines flight #1286 was scheduled to fly from Los
Angeles, California to Miami, Florida on Tuesday, October 16.
Janet, a resident of California, was scheduled to visit her
grandmother in Miami, Florida for a one week vacation.
Janet was also scheduled to fly on Florida Airlines flight
#1286. The Florida bound plane departed on time and began
its flight toward the southeast. There was one stop in
Houston, Texas and another in New Orleans, Louisiana. Once
the plane had completed its stop in New Orleans, Janet felt the
strong desire to smoke a cigarette. As such, she went back
to the rear of the plane and lit up.
As Janet was enjoying her cigarette, she noticed a sign on the
ceiling overhead which read, "Cigarette Smoking Is Illegal On
This Flight." Unbeknownst to Janet, Congress had passed a
statute, only two months prior to her flight, which banned
cigarette smoking on "all passenger and commercial airline
flights within the United States." Congress, in enacting
the statute, felt that flights would be safer as the potential
of starting an unwanted fire would be eliminated, or at least
reduced. Congress was presented results from a study which
showed that eighty-seven percent of all fires on board aircraft
resulted from the butts of cigarettes being disposed of in an
improper fashion. Congress also recognized and cited the
Surgeon General's studies which indicated that, "Quitting
smoking now greatly reduces serious risks to your health."
Furthermore, Congress stated, "There is no inherent right to
smoke which is granted to citizens by the United States
Constitution."
1. Janet is charged with violating the statute making
smoking illegal on the flight. If Janet challenges this
statute on constitutional grounds, the court should find the
statute
(A) Unconstitutional, as it takes away one's right to
life, liberty and property in violation of the Fourteenth
Amendment to the United States Constitution.
(B) Unconstitutional, as it takes away one's right to
life, liberty, and property, in violation of the Fifth Amendment
to the United States Constitution.
(C) Constitutional,
because Congress could find that the statute is in the public
interest as it acts to protect the health, safety, and welfare
of airline passengers.
(D) Constitutional, because Congress is exercising its
federal commerce power.
Question 2
is based on the following fact situation.
Sometime in July, 1990 problems arose in the Middle East when
Iraq invaded Kuwait. The United States, as well as several
other countries around the world, became very upset with this
invasion. Acting to protect its own interests, the
interests of other Middle Eastern countries, and to show its
disapproval of Iraq's actions, the United States surrounded
Iraq. The United States militia, in the form of Army,
Navy, Air Force, and Marine troops were sent to the
confrontation to maintain peace until this new Middle Eastern
crisis could be resolved. As negotiations took place,
troops and supplies from other countries, as well as the United
States, remained in place.
Although the United States did not declare war, the U.S.
Government did raise and support an army and appropriated money
to such use. The United States Government also provided
for organizing, arming, and disciplining these military troops
and governed such part of them as may be employed in the service
of the United States. The U.S. Government also provided and
maintained a navy during this period of time.
2. Which United States Government body and/or official
has the power to perform the above-described acts?
(A) The President,
acting alone.
(B) The President,
acting with the advice and consent of Congress.
(C) The Congress.
(D) All of the above.
Questions 3 - 6
are based on the following fact situation - ESSAY.
Penny was a group
manager for a nationwide lobbying and governmental relations
company (Company) located in State T, where she has resided for
all of her life. She had worked for Company for 5 years, with
excellent performance reviews. Penny also is a part-time student
in a unique and highly prestigious graduate program leading to a
Master’s degree in public administration, and she has completed
all requirements for her Master’s degree except the required
thesis. She has been working on her thesis on her assigned topic
of waste in State S government for several years, but she still
needs some additional data from State S to complete it.
Penny submitted a
written request to State S to obtain a copy of its fiscal
records under the state’s Open Government Records Act (“OGRA”),
to which she received the following response from the Secretary
of Financial Affairs of State S: “Your request for State S
fiscal records is DENIED for the following reason(s): you are
not a citizen of State S.”
State S’s OGRA
provides, in pertinent part: “All public records shall be open
for inspection and copying by any citizen of the State during
regular business hours of the appropriate state agency.” The
legislative history for this statute states that the purpose of
the statute is to strengthen the political process by ensuring
transparency and accountability in State S government by making
its records available to its citizens who are eligible to vote.
Penny needs the
records as soon as possible to assist her in completing a
project at work and because her participation in the graduate
program will be terminated if she does not complete her thesis
within the next three months. A Complaint was filed on Penny’s
behalf in federal court in State S against appropriate
defendants, alleging that the refusal to provide the requested
records to Penny violated the Privileges & Immunities Clause of
Article IV of the U.S. Constitution. After filing the Complaint,
Penny’s counsel filed a Motion for Preliminary Injunction, and
initial discovery revealed that Penny’s request was denied
solely because she was not a citizen of State S.
3. What arguments
should Penny’s counsel make to establish that the denial of
State S records violated Penny’s rights under the Privileges and
Immunities Clause of the federal Constitution, and with what
likelihood of success?
4. Assume for purposes
of this question only that the court will find that Penny has a
strong likelihood of success on the merits of her constitutional
claim. What other elements must Penny establish to support her
request for a preliminary injunction, and how should the court
rule on such request?
While the
litigation over access to State S records was pending, Penny
received notice by Company that her position as a manager had
been eliminated as part of an overall 10% reduction in force
(“RIF”). The following facts can be established: prior to the
RIF Company had 100 employees, 10 of whom were women; 5 women
were terminated by Company as part of the RIF; Penny was
Company's only female manager; and male employees with less
seniority than Penny were retained as managers by Company. A
complex demographic study of governmental relations businesses
performed in 2007 showed Company to be in the lowest 1% of
similar companies for hiring and promoting women.
As a result of her
termination, after complying with the procedural requirements
for bringing suit, Penny filed a Complaint against Company in
federal court under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964,
alleging discrimination due to disparate treatment on the basis
of her sex. Prior to trial, Penny’s former boss learned that
Penny had not completed her graduate degree. When Penny had
applied for her job, she told Company’s Director of Personnel
that she had completed her Master’s degree, which was a
requirement for her position, and a ground for which she would
have been fired if it was discovered.
5. At trial when
Penny’s counsel seeks to introduce the demographic study as
evidence to support Penny’s claim of sex discrimination, Company
objects on the grounds of relevance. What arguments should be
made in support of the admission of the study, and how should
the court rule?
6.
Where did Congress get the power to establish such an office? Assume
that Penny established a prima facie case of discrimination and
that Company’s reduction in force explanation was found to be a
pretext for discrimination. What effect, if any, would the
evidence of Penny’s misrepresentation of her academic
qualifications have on Company’s ability to defend against her
claim of discrimination, and on any remedy that could be
obtained by Penny?
Question 7
is based on the following fact situation.
Congress passed legislation which established the United States
Patent and Copyright Office. This office is headquartered
in Washington, D.C. The purpose of this office is to
provide a uniform system of keeping track of, and establishing
rights to, inventions and written material.
7. Where
did Congress get the power to establish such an office?
(A) Congress' power to regulate commerce.
(B) Congress' power to lay and collect taxes, duties,
imposts, and excises.
(C) Congress' power to promote science and useful arts.
(D) Congress' power to enforce laws by appropriate
legislation.
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CONSTITUTIONAL LAW ANSWERS
AND EXPLANATIONS
1. (D) Congress has the power to regulate
smoking on airplanes. Congress, in enacting this federal
statute, is exercising its federal commerce power.
Congress may enact a commerce-based criminal statute when, as
here, the activity is related to interstate transactions.
While smoking may be proper in an airport terminal and other
places, Congress may enact legislation which makes it illegal to
smoke in an airplane. Answer choice (C) is a correct
statement but general statements such as this should not be
preferred over an answer pick which states a correct rule of law
or test which the court will apply. Answer choices (A) and
(B) are incorrect because they concern an unconstitutional
taking of life, liberty, or property. Under these facts,
Congress' actions are proper and constitutional.
2. (C) Article I, Section 8 of the United
States Constitution grants to Congress certain powers. All
of the powers mentioned in this question are powers granted to
Congress by the United States Constitution. Thus, answer
(C) is correct. Under Article I, Section 8, Clause 12,
Congress has the power "To raise and support Armies, but no
Appropriation of Money to that Use shall be for a longer Term
than two Years." Under Article I, Section 8, Clause 13,
Congress has the power "To provide and maintain a Navy."
Under Article I, Section 8, Clause 15, Congress has the power
"To provide for calling forth the Militia to Bossute the Laws of
the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions."
Finally, under Article I, Section 8, Clause 16, Congress has the
power "To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the
Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed
in the Service of the United States...." Since Congress
alone has all of these powers and The President's main role
during wartime is to act as Commander in Chief of the Army and
Navy, answer (C) is correct and all other choices are incorrect.
3.
Penny’s counsel should argue that State S’s denial of access to
its records impairs protected rights, and that State S does not
have a substantial reason for its denial that bears a
substantial relation to the state’s goal. Penny will likely be
successful in establishing a violation of the Privileges and
Immunities Clause.
The Privileges &
Immunities Clause of Article IV, § 2 of the United States
Constitution provides: “[t]he citizens of each State shall be
entitled to all Privileges and Immunities of Citizens in the
several States.” It has generally been interpreted as preventing
a state from discriminating against citizens of other states in
favor of its own. Hague v. C.I.O., 307 U.S. 496, 511, 59
S.Ct. 954 (1939).
The test to
determine whether a State’s actions or policies violate the
Privileges & Immunities Clause of Article IV requires a court to
consider whether the policy at issue burdens a right protected
by the Privileges & Immunities Clause, and whether the state has
a “substantial reason” for the discriminatory practice and
whether the degree of discrimination bears a close relation to
the reason. Toomer v. Witsell, 334 U.S. 385, 68 S.Ct.
1156 (1948), United Building & Construction Trades v. Mayor
and Council of Camden, et. al., 465 U.S. 208, 104 S.Ct. 1020
(1984), Supreme Court of New Hampshire v. Piper, 470 U.S.
274, 284, 105 S.Ct. 1272 (1985).
Penny should argue
that State S has discriminated against her by denying her access
to its official records, and that such denial burdened her
ability to complete work projects in the field of lobbying and
governmental relations on the same basis as residents of State
S, and to engage in the political process.
The pursuit of a
common calling is one of the most fundamental of those
privileges protected by the Privileges & Immunities Clause.
City of Camden, supra. Penny’s inability to perform the
functions of her work in the field of lobbying and governmental
relations on the same basis as State S residents could be
determined to affect her right to pursue a common calling.
Toomer, supra., at 396, Lee v. Minner, 369 F.Supp. 2d
527 (D.Del. 2005), affirmed, 458 F.3d 194 (3d Cir. 2006).
In the Lee case, a non-resident sought Delaware’s
official records in order to carry out his profession as a
consumer advocate and journalist. The District Court found that
a citizen-only law violated plaintiff’s fundamental right “to
practice his common calling…on the same terms and conditions” as
residents. Id., 369 F.Supp.2d at 533.
Additionally, it is
reasonable to assume that Penny and other residents of State T
might be interested in State S’s government operations, and that
governmental watchdog organizations, like Company, would have an
interest in transparency and accountability in State S
government. Penny could argue that her inability to investigate
and question State S’s budget may be determined to be a burden
on her ability to participate in political advocacy on matters
of common public interest between the states. The court in
Lee v. Minner found that a citizen’s only law violated
plaintiff’s fundamental right “to engage in the political
process with regard to matters of both national political and
economic importance.” Id., 369 F.Supp.2d at 533.
If Penny’s rights are determined to be protected by the
Privileges & Immunities Clause, State S must then establish that
it has a “substantial reason” for exclusion of nonresidents from
access to its official documents. State S must prove “…that
there is an independent, valid reason for the discriminatory
treatment of nonresidents, and that nonresidents are a ‘peculiar
source of the evil at which the statute is aimed.’” Id., at
535, quoting Toomer, supra, 334 U.S. at 399. State S
may be expected to argue that it wants to strengthen the
political process by ensuring transparency and accountability in
State S government for its citizens.
While ensuring transparency and accountability in government
might be found to be a legitimate interest, it is unlikely that
the state’s goal is substantially related to the means by which
it seeks to achieve that goal. See Lee, supra, 458 F.3d
at 201. Allowing non-citizens access to the same public
information available to the citizens of State S does not impede
or thwart such interest. Id. Moreover, since residents of
other states may have a legitimate interest in State S
governmental activities, wholesale exclusion of out-of-state
residents from access to records is likely to be viewed as an
obstacle to such goal. Indeed, Penny’s research on waste in
State S government would certainly have been of interest to
State S residents, thus furthering rather than hindering State
S’s interest in increasing accountability and transparency in
State S government. Accordingly, the court will likely find that
OGRA violates Penny’s rights under the Privileges & Immunities
Clause.
4.
In addition to a likelihood of success on the merits, Penny must
establish that irreparable injury will result if the injunctive
relief is not granted; that harm to Penny will outweigh harm to
State S; and that the public interest will not be harmed if the
preliminary injunction is granted. Penny will likely succeed in
obtaining a preliminary injunction.
Preliminary
injunctive relief is extraordinary relief, issued at the
discretion of the trial court. JSG Trading Corp. v.
Tray-Wrap, Inc., 917 F.2d 75, 80 (2d Cir. 1990). Here, Penny
is seeking to enjoin the enforcement of OGRA against her. This
is considered to be a mandatory injunction that seeks to alter
the status quo by commanding a positive act. Yu Juan Sheng v.
City of New York, et al, 181 Fed. Appx. 38, 2006 U.S. App.
LEXIS 11928 (2d Cir. 2006).
The criteria for
the entry of a preliminary injunction are: (1) a likelihood of
success on the merits; (2) irreparable harm resulting from
denial of the relief sought; (3) the harm to the non-moving
party if the relief is granted; and (4) the public interest.
United States v. Bell, 238 F.Supp.2d 696 (M.D. Pa. 2003).
Where the preliminary injunction is directed at providing
mandatory relief, the burden on the moving party is particularly
heavy. Punnett v. Carter, 621 F.2d 578 (3d Cir. 1980).
Since success on
the merits is assumed, Penny must establish that she will be
irreparably injured should the injunctive relief be denied, that
the public interest will not be harmed by the preliminary
injunction and that the harm to State S (from granting the
requested injunction) will not be greater than the harm to Penny
(should injunctive relief be denied). In support of these
elements, she will allege irreparable injury due to her
inability to complete her thesis should she be denied immediate
access to State S financial records, which will cause her to be
terminated from the unique and prestigious graduate program in
which she is enrolled. She should further allege that it is in
the public interest for her as a member of the public to gain
access to State S fiscal records, and that State S will not be
injured by the entry of preliminary injunctive relief.
It is likely that
the court will grant a preliminary injunction. It is clear that
the public interest will not be harmed by the granting of the
injunction, and, in fact, it may further the public interest for
such access to be granted so that the public may benefit from
Penny’s research on waste in State S government. Additionally,
State S will not be harmed if the preliminary injunction is
granted because access to the records by Penny is currently
merely restricted rather than eliminated under the statute.
Penny could obtain
the records through other means if she were able to identify a
State S resident willing to make the request for records on her
behalf.
Finally, it is likely that the court will find that Penny will
sustain irreparable injury if a preliminary injunction does not
issue. An irreparable injury is one that is of a peculiar nature
so that money alone cannot compensate for it. Connors v.
Shannopin Mining Co., 675 F.Supp. 986 (W.D. Pa. 1987). Most
courts hold that when an alleged deprivation of a constitutional
right is involved, no further showing of irreparable injury is
necessary to support the grant of a preliminary injunction.
McCormick v. Hirsch, 460 F. Supp. 1337 (M.D. Pa. 1978). Even
if specific proof of irreparable injury were required, it is
likely that Penny’s dismissal from the unique and prestigious
graduate program for her failure to meet the program’s
deadlines, would be viewed as warranting such extraordinary
equitable relief, especially in light of the fact that she has
been working on the research project for several years. See
Faulkner v. Jones, et. al., 10 F.3d 226 (4th Cir. 1993).
Penny’s Motion for a Preliminary Injunction will likely be
granted.
5.
Penny’s counsel should argue that the demographic study is relevant
to support Penny’s prima facie case of discrimination, and to
support her argument that the reduction in force explanation for her
dismissal was a pretext for discrimination. The court will likely
admit the study.
In general, all
relevant evidence is admissible. Rule 402, Fed. R. Evidence. Rule
401 of the Federal Rules of Evidence states that relevant evidence
is “evidence having any tendency to make the existence of any fact
that is of consequence to the determination of the action more
probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence.”
Here, Penny’s
position was not filled by another individual; rather, the Company
claims that Penny lost her job because of an overall reduction in
force. Penny has filed an action based on disparate treatment and
will argue that she was singled out for termination because she is
female and that the reduction in force is a pretext for
discrimination. Statistics can be relevant and important in a case
of individual disparate treatment. Carmichael v. Birmingham Saw
Works, 738 F.2d 1126 (11th Cir. 1984).
Statistical
evidence that relates to an employer’s general policy and practice
with respect to employment of individuals in the plaintiff’s
protected class may be relevant to a showing of pretext because such
statistics may be helpful to a determination of whether the
employer’s action with respect to the plaintiff conformed to a
general pattern of discrimination against individuals within the
plaintiff’s protected class. See McDonnell Douglas Corporation v.
Green, 411 U.S. 792, 93 S.Ct. 1817 (1973). Statistical
studies, while not ordinarily dispositive, are relevant in
establishing that the employer’s reason was a pretext for
discrimination in an individualized hiring decision. Id. at
1826, Bruno v. W.B. Saunders Co., 882 F.2d 760 (3d Cir.
1989), cert. denied, 493 U.S. 1062, 110 S.Ct. 880 (1990).
However, the probative value of statistical information in a
disparate treatment case is limited because overall employment
statistics have limited bearing on the specific intentions of the
employer in making particular employment decisions. Bullington v.
United Airlines Inc., 186 F.3d 1301 (10th Cir. 1999). Penny’s
employer may seek to introduce other statistical evidence to
diminish the probative value of the study.
Penny should argue
that statistical evidence of the percentage of Company’s female
employees in comparison to other similarly situated employers in the
area is relevant for purposes of establishing that the reduction in
force was a pretext for discrimination because the statistical
comparison shows that Company appears to have discriminated against
women in its hiring and promotion decisions by virtue of its poor
performance compared to other similar companies which were able to
hire and retain significant percentages of women employees.
Penny could also
argue that the statistical information is relevant to establishing a
prima facie case of discrimination. While statistical information
alone may not be sufficient to establish a prima facie case of
disparate treatment, it can be relevant and important circumstantial
evidence of discriminatory treatment. Smith v Horner, 839
F.2d 1530 (11th Cir. 1998), Kadas v. MCI Systemhouse Corporation,
255 F.3d 359 (7th Cir. 2001). She would offer the study as
circumstantial evidence of Company’s discriminatory intent toward
her, arguing that her termination conformed to a general practice of
discrimination against women.
The court would
likely overrule the objection and admit the statistical evidence as
it supports Penny’s claim of discrimination, and it makes the
allegation of pretext more probable because of Company’s overall
hiring and promotion practices with respect to women.
6.
Since it appears that Company did not learn of Penny’s
misrepresentation of her academic qualifications until after her
dismissal, Company may not avoid liability for discrimination on
that basis. However, since the misrepresentation would have
justified Company in terminating her for failure to meet the
requirements of the job, Penny would not be eligible for
reinstatement. She would be eligible for back pay from the date of
the discriminatory termination until the date Penny’s
misrepresentation of her academic qualifications was discovered.
It was assumed for
purposes of this question that a prima facie case of sex
discrimination had been established by Penny, and that Company’s
proffered reason of a reduction in force to support Penny’s
dismissal was found to be a pretext for discrimination. Assuming, as
it appears, that Company did not learn of Penny’s misrepresentation
until after she was discriminatorily terminated, Penny’s employer
will not be able to use evidence of her misrepresentation of her
qualifications as an additional legitimate non-discriminatory reason
for termination.
The Supreme Court
in McKennon v. Nashville Banner Publishing Company, 513 U.S.
352, 115 S.Ct. 879 (1995), recognized that in defending
against a claim of discrimination under the ADEA, an employer cannot
claim that an employee was terminated for after-discovered
misconduct because the employer could not have been motivated to
terminate the employee for wrongdoing of which it had no knowledge
at the time of the termination. The McKennon holding that
after-acquired evidence does not provide immunity from liability for
a claim of discrimination is applicable to Title VII claims, and to
cases where the after-acquired evidence concerned the employee’s
misrepresentations in a job application rather than misconduct
during employment. See Wallace v. Dunn Construction Company,
62 F.3d 374 (11th Cir. 1995).
The after-acquired
evidence of misconduct does bear on the remedy available to the
terminated employee, and, as a general rule, neither reinstatement
nor front pay is an appropriate remedy in such circumstances.
McKennon, supra., Wallace, supra. In cases where, as here, the
after-acquired evidence was of such severity that it would have led
to termination of the employee had the employer known about it, back
pay generally will be limited to the period from the date of the
unlawful discharge to the date the evidence of misconduct was
discovered. McKennon, supra., Wallace, supra. The rationale
for the rule is that the employer should not be impeded in the
exercise of legitimate prerogatives and the employee should not be
placed in a better position than she would have occupied absent the
discrimination. Shattuck v. Kinetic Concepts, Inc., 49 F.3d
1106 (5th Cir. 1995).
The
facts establish that a graduate degree was a requirement for Penny’s
position, and that she would have been terminated if her
misrepresentation of her qualifications had been discovered. Penny
will prevail in her claim of discriminatory termination since she
established a prima facie case of discrimination, which was not
rebutted by the existence of a legitimate non-discriminatory reason,
but she will only be eligible for an award of back pay, and will not
be entitled to reinstatement or front pay.
7.
(C) Article I, Section 8, Clause 8 grants to Congress the
power "To promote the Progress of Science and useful Arts, by
securing for Limited Times to Authors and Inventors the exclusive
Right to their respective Writings and Discoveries." Thus,
answer (C) is correct. Answer choices (A), (B), and (D) are
incorrect because, although these might be powers Congress can
exercise, these are not the specific grants of power which give
Congress the right to establish the United States Patent and
Copyright Office. Note also that answer choice (D) states
"Congress' power to enforce laws...." This does not say "enact
laws." Thus, it is not a correct answer. This question
calls for an answer which grants to Congress the power to "enact"
the appropriate legislation which establishes the Patent and
Copyright Office. This illustration points out the fact that
the Multistate Bar Examination is as much a reading comprehension
examination as it is a legal examination. You must always keep
alert to key words when you read each fact pattern and answer
choice.
Last updated: October
25, 2008
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