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Republic of New Lemuria 
 

 Republic of New Lemuria Bar Association
 

Sample Bar Examination Questions

of the Republic of New Lemuria Board of Bar Examiners

 

Torts | Criminal Law & Procedure | Constitutional Law
Torts Answers
| Criminal Law & Procedure Answers | Constitutional Law Answers

 

 

The Republic of New Lemuria is a common law nation that adheres to ecclesiastic law, in the absence of statutory or common law authority or precedent.  Members of the Republic of New Lemuria Bar Association often practice before the Republic of New Lemuria Permanent Court of Arbitration, which is an international dispute resolution tribunal.  Because the vast majority of disputes heard before the Permanent Court of Arbitration occur within the United States and other common law jurisdictions, the Republic of New Lemuria Bar Examination predominantly includes U.S. Constitutional questions, common law questions and fact patterns that may be characteristic to the United States.  Applicants should expect additional Constitutional questions relating to the Constitution and laws of the Republic of New Lemuria.  The bar examination consists of 100 multiple choice and essay questions for each of the following test areas: 1)  Torts; 2)  Criminal Law & Procedure; and 3)  Constitutional Law.  Proficiency in Ecclesiastic Law is tested through oral and essay examinations, the results of which represent 25% of the applicant's overall test score.

 

 

 

Torts

 

Question 1  is based on the following fact situation. 

 

Paul Jackson, a candidate for a city counsel position in the City of Southland, was present in town square on September 21.  The City of Southland had a tradition of allowing candidates for the office of city council the privilege to present a short speech on this date for the purpose of informing interested members of the public on the points of view which each candidate holds.  Several candidates delivered their speeches.  Paul Jackson then presented his five minute speech.  After Paul Jackson had delivered his speech he went back to resume his seat which was on the stage about ten feet behind the podium.  Tom Dullard, an opposing candidate who was sitting in the seat next to Paul Jackson's assigned seat, decided that it would be entertaining to pull Jackson's chair out from under him.  As Jackson began to sit down, Dullard pulled the chair out causing Jackson to fall to the stage floor.  Jackson suffered no injuries but he was deeply humiliated over the incident.

 

1.         If Jackson brings a tort action against Dullard, Jackson will probably recover on which of the following theories? 

 

(A)           Intentional infliction of emotional distress

(B)           Assault

(C)           Battery

            (D)           No recovery

 

 

Question 2 is based on the following fact situation. 

 

The eleventh grade class of Southland High School went to Flightline Avionics on a class field trip.  During lunch the school administrator provided the students some time to eat at the cafeteria located on the premises.  Alice, the class clown, decided to pull another prank.  As Bonnie was attempting to sit down with a tray of food, Alice pulled Bonnie's chair from beneath her.  Bonnie fell to the floor. 

 

2.         Which tort is most applicable under these facts? 

(A)           Assault

(B)           Battery

(C)           Negligent infliction of emotional distress

(D)           Intentional infliction of emotional distress 

 

 

Questions 3 - 5 are based on the following fact situation.

 

Boss and Colleague were both white collar workers who were employed by firms located in downtown Southland.  Both Boss and Colleague were late for work on Tuesday morning.  As such, they each were traveling at an excessive rate of speed toward their respective places of business.  Boss was traveling down Second Street, only seven blocks from his office, at a speed of forty-five miles per hour.  The posted speed was thirty miles per hour.  As Boss approached the intersection of Second Street and Gilbert Avenue, Colleague also approached the same intersection.  Colleague was traveling north on Gilbert Avenue to get to work that morning.  Colleague was also speeding and witnesses estimated his speed to be somewhere between forty and fifty miles per hour.  The posted speed on Gilbert Avenue was thirty miles per hour.

 

The two cars collided at the intersection of Second and Gilbert.  Colleague's Buick Skylark hit Boss's Ford Escort causing Boss to swerve out of control into Pedro's produce cart parked at the side of the road.  Both Pedro and his merchandise suffered extensive injuries.  The jury found that the accident was caused due to the inattentiveness of both drivers with Boss 40% negligent and Colleague 60% negligent. 

 

3.          If the jurisdiction follows the doctrine of "pure" comparative negligence, and Colleague suffered $10,000 in damages, what will Colleague recover in a suit against Boss? 

 

(A)           $10,000

(B)           $6,000

(C)           $4,000

(D)           Nothing

 

4.          If this jurisdiction follows the doctrine of "modified" comparative negligence, and Colleague suffered $10,000 in damages, what will Colleague recover in a suit against Boss? 

 

(A)           $10,000

(B)           $6,000

(C)           $4,000

(D)           Nothing

 

5.         Assume for the purposes of this question that Pedro has a claim for damages against both Boss and Colleague and that he obtains a judgment for the full amount of his damages from Colleague.  Which theory will now allow Colleague to pursue Boss in order to have Boss pay for part of the damages? 

 

(A)           Subrogation

(B)           Collateral sources rule

(C)           Contribution

(D)           Indemnity

 

 

 

 

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TORTS ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS 

 

1.   (A) Intentional infliction of emotional distress, answer choice (A) is the best answer.  Although it is correct that Dullard has committed both a battery and the tort of intentional infliction of emotional distress we must look to the degree or severity of the conduct.  First of all, choice (D) is incorrect because (A) is correct.  Answer choice (B) is not correct because Jackson did not suffer from an imminent apprehension of a harmful or offensive contact.  Answer choice (C) is correct to the extent that a harmful or offensive contact occurred, but answer (A) is the better answer as Dullard's conduct was extreme and outrageous.  Dullard's conduct constitutes the intentional infliction of emotional distress because it occurred in front of interested voters who attended the candidate speeches and because it was extreme and outrageous.

 

2.   (B)  Battery is the most probable tort for which Bonnie may be able to assert in a suit for recovery against Alice.  Battery consists of the harmful and offensive touching of plaintiff's person.  "Plaintiff's person" includes anything connected with plaintiff's body.  The freedom from intentional and unpermitted contact extends not only to any part of the body but also to anything which is attached to the body or identified with the body.  Thus, the pulling of Bonnie's chair, causing her to fall to the floor, constitutes a battery.  Note that this fact pattern must be distinguished from the fact pattern which describes conduct which may be characterized as "extreme" and "outrageous."  In these questions, the degree or severity of Defendant's tortious conduct will determine whether plaintiff will most likely prevail under a theory of battery or under a theory of intentional infliction of emotional distress.

 

3.   (C) Under the theory of "pure" comparative negligence a negligent plaintiff can still recover even where his negligence exceeds that of the Defendant.  "Pure" comparative negligence allows recovery no matter how great plaintiff's negligence.  Under the facts presented in this question, you are told that the jurisdiction follows a system of "pure" comparative negligence.  Thus, if Colleague brings suit against Boss for $10,000 and the jury determines that Colleague is 60% negligent, Colleague would still be able to recover $10,000 minus the percentage of his negligence (60% of $10,000), or $4,000.  Therefore, answer (C) is correct.

 

4.   (D) Colleague may recover nothing under these facts if the jurisdiction follows a "modified" comparative negligence system.  Under a theory of "modified" comparative negligence the negligent plaintiff may recover so long as his negligence is not equal to or greater than that of the Defendant.  No recovery will be allowed if the plaintiff's negligence is equal to or greater than Defendant's negligence.  Under these facts, the jury found that Boss was 40% negligent and Colleague was 60% negligent.  Since Colleague (the plaintiff here) was 60% negligent and Boss (the Defendant here) was only 40% negligent, Colleague may recover nothing.  Answer (D) is correct.

 

5.   (C) Contribution allows a Defendant to claim recovery of damages against other jointly liable parties for excess damages when that Defendant is required to pay more than his share of damages.  Answer (C) is correct.  Contribution apportions responsibility among those at fault.  In a comparative negligence system, apportionment is in proportion to the relative fault of the Defendants.  Answer choice (A) is incorrect because one Defendant is not being substituted for another and responsibility for the entire loss and all damages may not be placed upon Boss.  Answer choice (B) is incorrect because this rule will not act to shift responsibility for damages from Colleague to Boss.  The collateral sources rule provides that a Defendant tortfeasor may not benefit from the fact that plaintiff has received money from other sources.  This rule does not help Colleague.  Finally, choice (D) is incorrect because indemnity involves shifting of the entire loss from one tortfeasor to another.  Indemnity is not available under these facts where both Boss and Colleague were negligent.

 

 


 

CRIMINAL LAW AND PROCEDURE

Question Outline

 

 

 1.     Larceny

 2.     Arson

 3.     Federal Jurisdiction

 4.     Depraved-Heart Murder

 5.     Voluntary Manslaughter

 6.     Involuntary Manslaughter

 7.     Voluntary Manslaughter

 8.     Assault As Attempted Battery

 9.     False Pretenses

10.    False Pretenses

11.    False Pretenses

12.    Felony Murder

13.    Parties To A Crime

14.    Duress Defense

15.    Murder

16.    Custodial Interrogation

17.    Probable Cause

18.    Confessions

19.    Self Incrimination

20.    Miranda

21.    Plain Error

22.    Harmless Error

23.    Harmless Error

24.    Harmless Error

25.    Duty To Correct False Testimony

26.    Burden Of Production

27.    Miranda Questioning

28.    Self Incrimination

29.    Right Of Confrontation

30.    Standing

31.    Right To Counsel

32.    Right To Counsel

33.    Accomplice Liability

34.    Accomplice Liability

35.    Felony Murder

36.    Felony Murder

37.    Self Defense

38.    Intoxication

39.    Inchoate Crimes

40.    Conspiracy

41.    Criminal Jurisdiction

42.    Burglary

43.    Burglary- Intent To Commit A Felony

44.    Presumption Of Innocence

45.    Beyond A Reasonable Doubt

46.    Bad Check Statutes

47.    Murder

48.    Felony Murder

49.    Insanity Defense

50.    Bifurcated Trial

51.    Capital Punishment

52.    Larceny

53.    Larceny

54.    Larceny

55.    Larceny- Personal Property Of Another

56.    Larceny- Asportation

57.    Larceny- Personal Property Of Another

58.    False Pretenses

59.    Receiving Stolen Property

60.    Accomplice Liability

61.    Confessions As Fruits Of Illegal Arrests And Searches

62.    Double Jeopardy

63.    Waiver Of The Right To Counsel

64.    Pretrial Discovery- Duty To Disclose

65.    Miranda- Required Warnings

66.    Automobile Stop

67.    Automobile Search

68.    "Target" Standing

69.    Right To A Speedy Trial

70.    Acquittal Or Dismissal

71.    Double Jeopardy- Conviction

72.    Double Jeopardy- Evidence Insufficiency

73.    Suppression Hearing- Burden Of Proof

74.    Indigency Standards

75.    Conflicts Of Interest

76.    Habeas Procedures

77.    Principal In The Second Degree

78.    Parties To A Crime

79.    Conspiracy And Accomplice Liability

80.    Conspiracy- Mental State

81.    Involuntary Manslaughter

82.    Felony Murder Rule

83.    Voluntary Manslaughter

84.    "Depraved-Heart" Murder

85.    "Depraved-Heart" Murder

86.    Defense Of Insanity

87.    Defense Of Insanity

88.    Murder

89.    Theft Crimes

90.    Degrees Of Homicide

91.    "Depraved-Heart" Murder

92.    Solicitation

93.    Solicitation

94.    Motive

95.    Robbery- Common Law

96.    Robbery- Statutory

97.    Robbery- Homicide Victim

98.    Bigamy

99.    Criminal and Civil Contempt

100.  Retribution

 

 

 


 

CRIMINAL LAW AND PROCEDURE

 

Question 1 is based on the following fact situation.

 

1.         In which of the following fact situations is Defendant Johnson most likely to be found guilty of the crime of larceny?

 

(A)        Johnson, with the intent to steal Bill's Afghan rug, travels to Bill's house and, finding the front door unlocked, enters Bill's living room where Johnson knows Bill keeps the Afghan rug.  Unbeknownst to Johnson, Bill had taken the rug to Martha's gallery for a ten day Rare Art Exhibit.  Johnson sits down in Bill's living room and watches a 30 minute television program and then quietly leaves Bill's house.

 

(B)        Johnson a grocery clerk at check stand five of Crocker Grocery Store was on duty on Saturday, May 15.  Johnson had been experiencing hard times lately because his wife had divorced him and he was trying to make payments on his house and car and also keep up with his child support obligations.  Gertrude, a customer at Crocker Grocery Store, purchased various items amounting to the total of seventeen dollars and sixty-five cents.  Gertrude gave Johnson a twenty-dollar bill for the groceries.  Johnson placed the twenty-dollar bill on top of the register and then returned two dollars and thirty-five cents to Gertrude.  Before Johnson turned to put the twenty-dollar bill into the cash register he decided that he needed the cash for himself.  Johnson surreptitiously pocketed the twenty in his pants pocket.  Johnson took the twenty home with him that day. 

 

(C)        Johnson, with the intent to steal Jane's  new fox hair coat, travels to Jane's house and enters through a side window after breaking it.  Unfortunately, Jane had decided to wear her fox hair coat to the ball that evening.  After Johnson saw that the fox hair coat was not there he remembered that Jane said something about going out that evening.  Johnson decided to wait until Jane returned home so he could then overpower her and take the coat from her.   Johnson went to the kitchen, prepared a sandwich, ate it, played cards, and awaited Jane's return.  By 11:30 p.m. Johnson, tired of waiting for Jane, decided to leave.  He left through the open broken window.

 

(D)        Johnson, with the intent to steal, always had his eye on Harry's 1995 Chevrolet Camaro.  Several weeks went by and then one day Harry decided that maybe before he  actually stole Harry's car it might be better if he knew exactly what the car was like.  Johnson believed that it would be a waste of time to steal a car that could not handle nicely around curves in the road, or that could not go at least 70 m.p.h. on the highway.  With that, Johnson asked Harry if he could borrow Harry's Chevy.  Harry, without hesitation, agreed, but added,  "Please have it back by 12:00 midnight because I worry about my new car."   Johnson said,  "No problem."   Johnson took the car but kept it out all night and did not return it until 9:30 a.m. the next morning.

 

 

 

 

Question 2 is based on the following fact situation.

 

Mike and Gary were competitors in the car rental business.  Mike's business was fairly large and he operated it out of a commercial lot located at the Southland Airport.  Gary, on the other hand, was just starting out.  Gary had only six cars which he rented out.  Gary's business was done out of his house with up to three cars parked in the garage to his house and the remaining cars parked outside of his house alongside the garage.  Of course, there were occasions when all of Gary's cars were rented and he had none on his property at all.  Mike knew that Gary's business was increasing and that this was putting a dent in the rental market.  Mike vowed to put Gary out of business or at least cripple his efforts to rent cars.

 

At 10 p.m. on last Tuesday evening, Mike went to Gary's house with the specific intent to commit felony crimes, including the common law crimes of larceny, robbery, or arson, and also competitive advantage, a statutory felony in this jurisdiction.  Mike jumped the side fence to Gary's house and proceeded straight to the back door of Gary's attached garage.  Finding the door open, Mike didn't hesitate to enter.  Once inside, Mike thought about stealing the automobiles which were in Gary's garage.  There were two autos parked inside the garage and the keys were on a key board located on the wall.  Just before Mike picked up the keys, he spotted a five gallon gas can sitting on the floor.  A light bulb flashed in Mike's head.  He thought for a moment and then concluded that he could only drive one car away.  On the other hand, if he was to burn Gary's car, garage, and house, he might be able to force Gary out of business.  With that, Mike quickly poured gasoline out of the can.  But just after Mike began pouring the gasoline he heard a noise from inside the living room.  It sounded like footsteps.  Mike panicked.  He quickly took a match out of his pocket, lit the match, and threw it at the small puddle of gasoline on the ground.  The gasoline did catch fire, but it only created a flame that was large enough to scorch the wall and burn a section of Gary's work bench.  Mike ran out the back door and headed for home.  Immediately after Mike got out the back door, Gary went into the garage, saw the small fire, and quickly put it out with the fire extinguisher which he kept nearby.

 

 

2.          If Mike is charged with common law arson only, how should the court rule?

 

(A)           Guilty, but only if the fire had burned Gary's dwelling house.

(B)           Guilty, because the fire Mike set was sufficient to constitute common law arson.

(C)           Not guilty, but only if the fire did not burn Gary's dwelling house.

(D)           Not guilty, because Gary put the fire out.

 

 

Question 3 is based on the following fact situation.

 

Betty booked a flight on a SOUTHLAND AIR airplane which was scheduled to fly from Los Angeles to San Francisco on Friday, February 16.  Betty was a businesswoman who infrequently took airplane trips within California to attend business meetings and other work-related events.  On this particular day Betty arrived at the airport in Los Angeles with plenty of time to catch the plane.  Betty, being very nervous about her meeting in San Francisco, was smoking fervently the entire morning.

 

At 12:50 p.m. the plane, loaded with passengers, raced down the runway bound for San Francisco.  The stewardess informed all passengers about some safety precautions and also stated that the flight would only be 52 minutes in duration.  Betty, feeling nervous and apprehensive about the meeting, made her way to the lavatory located in the rear of the plane.  Since the lavatory was unoccupied, Betty went right in.  While  using the lavatory facilities, Betty noticed a sign which stated, "Smoking Is Prohibited On This Flight."  Betty also noticed another sign which read, "Tampering With Lavatory Smoke Alarms Is A Crime.  Violators Will Be Punished."

 

Believing that a cigarette might calm her nerves, Betty immediately produced a cigarette from her purse and lit it.  As Betty was enjoying the renewed and momentary relaxation which the nicotine gave her, the lavatory smoke alarm sounded.  A chill went down Betty's spine.  Immediately thereafter, a stewardess was banging on the outside of the lavatory door demanding that Betty open it.  Betty complied and was immediately arrested by the airline employee.  When Betty arrived in San Francisco the stewardess led Betty to the SOUTHLAND AIR boarding counter where two Federal Agents, working out of the San Francisco International Airport Office, handcuffed Betty and informed her that she was being charged with the violation of a federal statute which read, "It shall be a federal crime for any person to smoke any material on an airline flight when such airline has informed said person that 'Smoking Is Prohibited On This Flight.'"

 

As a result of the charge against her, Betty has been summoned into Federal Court, located in San Francisco, California.  All of Betty's appearances have been made in San Francisco even though Betty resides in Los Angeles, California.  At Betty's initial court appearance she argued that she could not be charged with the violation of the federal statute and be summoned into Federal Court because she did not know that what she was charged with was a violation of federal law.

 

 

3.          If the judge properly holds Betty to answer the charges against her it will be because

 

(A)        Lack of knowledge regarding federal territorial jurisdiction will not relieve one of being held to answer for a charged violation of federal statute.

 

(B)        Lack of knowledge regarding federal territorial jurisdiction is only a defense to a specific intent crime.

 

(C)        Betty may be properly held to answer for the charged violation in the territorial jurisdiction in which she is alleged to have committed the crime.

 

(D)        Betty has no right to object to the territorial jurisdiction in which she is summoned to answer for the charged offense.

 

 

Question 4 is based on the following fact situation.

 

Tommy just finished drinking four Gin Martinis at Bill's Bar.  It was twelve noon.  Bill didn't know that Tommy had already consumed two shots of whisky before he arrived at Bill's Bar at 11:40 a.m. that Monday morning.  When Tommy had finished his drinks he thanked Bill and headed for the door.  While making his way for the car, Tommy thought about how much he hated his job, his home, and his life.  Tommy repeated to himself the words, "Life sucks!"  All of his depression was attributed to his girlfriend leaving him three days earlier.  Tommy knew it.  He didn't want to admit it.  He tried to blame his depression on other things but he knew deep down inside that it was Gertrude that was getting him down.  He was having a hard time resigning himself to the fact that she was gone.

 

Just then it dawned on Tommy that he had to be at work.  He quickly jumped into his car and sped off.  Tommy was intoxicated but he didn't realize that he was driving at excessive speeds and in an erratic manner.  Tommy worked in Houston, Texas.  As he was traveling through town on his way to work he decided to run a few stop signs and red lights "to save a little time."  As Tommy was traveling at a speed of approximately sixty-five miles per hour he saw a Mazda RX-7 automobile appear in the intersection before him.  Tommy had no time to stop.  He hit the Mazda automobile.  

 

The Mazda, in turn, went careening into a few people who were crossing the street.  Lori Streetwalker, a thirty-six-year old woman, was one person who was crossing the street.  Lori died immediately.  Several other people were severely injured and required hospitalization.  Tommy walked away with only minor bruises, and a pair of handcuffs.  The Houston City Police Department arrested Tommy and has taken him into custody.

 

4.         Which legal theory of criminal liability would be most applicable under the circumstances?

 

(A)           Murder

(B)           Depraved-heart murder

            (C)           Involuntary manslaughter

(D)           Battery

 

 

Questions 5 - 7 are based on the following fact situations.  Read each fact situation and then choose the most serious offense for which the Defendant may properly be convicted.  Your choices are

 

(A)           Murder

(B)           Felony murder

(C)           Voluntary manslaughter

(D)           Involuntary manslaughter

 

5.         Defendant and Neighbor are neighbors in an apartment building.  Neither has liked the other very much.  Defendant especially dislikes Neighbor because Defendant believes that Neighbor, a single woman, is trying to steal the love and affection of Defendant's husband away from her.  One day the two of them get into a mutual disagreement and fight.  During the fight Defendant forms the intent to kill Neighbor.  Defendant quickly grabs a crescent wrench which was lying nearby and strikes three quick blows to Neighbor's head.  Neighbor dies before the ambulance arrives.

 

 

6.        When Joe refused to pay a gambling debt he owed to Mark, Mark told Joe that he knew members of a gang and that he would have them kill Joe. Both Mark and Joe are adults. Mark then contacted Ron and Sam, both age 15 and members of a local gang. Mark asked them to give Joe a severe beating but expressly told them not to use weapons.

Two days later, while looking for Joe, Ron and Sam, who were unarmed, saw him getting into his car in a parking lot. They began to run toward Joe. Joe saw them running toward him and noticed they were wearing bandanas indicative of gang membership. Thinking that Mark had sent them to kill him, Joe reached in the glove compartment of his car for a handgun and shot at Ron and Sam, wounding both. Although Joe explained Mark's threat to the police, he was arrested and charged with two counts of assault in the first degree. Ron and Sam were also arrested and charged with attempted assault.

Based on Joe's explanation and statements given to the police by Ron and Sam, Mark was arrested and charged with conspiracy and criminal solicitation.

Based on the foregoing facts:

(A)           If Joe raises the defense of justification, is it likely to be successful?

(B)           (1)      Did the actions of Ron and Sam constitute the crime of attempt to commit an assault?

          (2)      If so, do Ron and Sam have any defenses?

(C)           Did Mark commit the crimes of (1) conspiracy and (2) criminal solicitation?

 

 

 

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CRIMINAL LAW AND PROCEDURE ANSWERS

AND EXPLANATIONS

 

 

1.   (C)  Johnson is guilty of larceny only in hypothetical fact pattern (C) above.  Thus, answer choice (C) is the correct answer.  In fact pattern (C), Johnson committed larceny when he ate a sandwich which belonged to Jane.  Under the common law, larceny consisted of (1) the trespassory taking, (2) and carrying away (3) of the personal property (4) of another (5) with the specific intent to steal the same.  Answer choice (A) is incorrect because Johnson never obtained any personal property of another, nor did he carry any property away.  Answer choice (B) is incorrect because Johnson would be guilty of the crime of embezzlement, rather than larceny, when he took his employer's property.  Answer choice (D) is incorrect because Johnson merely borrowed the car and had no intent to steal it, or permanently deprive the owner of the property.

 

2.   (B)  The correct answer under these facts is answer choice (B) which states that Mike should be found guilty of common law arson.  Under the common law, arson consisted of the (1) malicious (2) burning (3) of the dwelling house (4) of another.  Students should also remember the rule that the slightest charring is sufficient to satisfy the "burning" element.  Furthermore, Gary's garage is attached to the house.  This "structure," including Gary's house and garage, is considered Gary's "dwelling house."  Once the flame scorched the wall, the crime of arson was completed.  Students should also note that the crime of burglary was not present under these facts as there was no "breaking" present.  Because the fire here burned Gary's dwelling house, answer choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect.

 

3.   (A)  Knowledge of federal territorial jurisdictional boundaries is not a defense to this federal criminal statute.  The fact that Betty did not know that it was a federal crime to smoke on the plane as she did will not relieve her of liability for violation of this federal criminal statute.  Unless the statute clearly states that the mental state must include knowledge of federal territorial boundaries, or that the act is a federal crime, this knowledge, or lack thereof, is not relevant and does not need to be proved by the prosecution, nor does it constitute a defense which the Defendant may use.  Very rarely, if ever, will a federal criminal statute specify that the Defendant must have this specific intent or knowledge.  Commonly the federal statute merely states what act is made criminal and the possible punishment.  In these situations, lack of knowledge regarding federal territorial jurisdiction will not relieve one from being held to answer for a charged violation of federal law.  Thus, answer (A) is correct.  Answer choices (B), (C), and (D) are all incorrect answer picks as they are either incorrect statements of law, or are false statements under these facts.

 

4.   (B)  Under these circumstances the most applicable legal theory would be depraved-heart murder.  Answer choice (B) is correct.  LaFave and Scott state that "Extremely negligent conduct, which creates what a reasonable man would realize to be not only an unjustifiable but also a very high degree of risk of death or serious bodily injury to another or to others - though unaccompanied by any intent to kill or do serious bodily injury - and which actually causes the death of another, may constitute murder."  LaFave and Scott, Criminal Law, at p. 617.  Furthermore, in the case of State vs. Snyder (1984) 311 N.C. 391, 317 S.E.2d 394, it was held that the Defendant's driving of an automobile at the speed of sixty to seventy miles per hour involved a type of danger which could be classified as sufficient to constitute "depraved-heart murder."  Answer (B) is the most correct answer according to the above discussion.  Answer choice (A) could be argued as correct because Tommy's actions constituted a type of murder, but answer choice (B) is more specific; for that reason, it is preferred.  Answer choice (C) is incorrect because Tommy's actions have "gone beyond" the unreasonable risk of injury or the grossly negligent conduct which is required for manslaughter liability.  Answer choice (D) is incorrect because Tommy's actions have gone beyond a mere battery for the reasons just mentioned.

 

5.   (C)  Defendant will be guilty of voluntary manslaughter under these facts.  Voluntary manslaughter is an intentional killing but it is mitigated down from murder, usually because it is committed while in the "heat of passion."  Answer choice (C) is correct.  In a situation in which two persons engage in a fight and where the intent to kill is formed during the fight, the correct charge is that of voluntary manslaughter.  It is important to note that this homicide would be considered murder, but for the fact that the intent to kill was formed during the fight or struggle and the Defendant performed the death-producing blow while in the heat of passion.  Answer choice (A) is incorrect because Defendant's act is not murder.  Murder is defined as the unlawful killing of another human being with malice aforethought.  Most jurisdictions today recognize various types of murder but they all have the common thread of the mental element of "malice" and they all require that this mental element be formulated, or planned, some time in advance of, and prior to, the killing.  Answer choice (B) is incorrect because there is no felony murder under these facts.  Under the common law there were certain enumerated felonies, such as burglary, larceny, arson, rape, and robbery, which were required to be either attempted or committed by the Defendant for felony murder to apply.  Finally, answer choice (D) is incorrect because Defendant's conduct, under the facts of this problem, was intentional.  Defendant's conduct did not merely constitute the commission of an unlawful act, or the commission of an unlawful act constituting a high probability of death or serious bodily injury.  Defendant's conduct here was intentional.  The facts state that "During the fight Defendant forms the intent to kill Neighbor."  This is an intentional killing.  Involuntary manslaughter is not applicable under these facts.

 

6.  (A)  The issue here is whether Joe can raise a defense of self defense when he used deadly force to repel those he believed were attempting to kill him.

 

            In New York, generally a person is guilty of a homicide if the act with the intent to kill another human being. Generally, this is punishable but the defendant may raise certain affirmative defenses. The defendant bears the burden of proving an affirmative defense via a preponderance of the evidence. One of these defenses is self defense. Generally, self defense allows one threatened with the use of force against his person or property may defend against the use of such force with force. When deadly force is used (such as by shooting a gun with the intent to hit the other person), it is only justified when threatened with deadly force against the person. The standard used is that of a reasonable person. Deadly force is never justified to be used for the protection of property. Also, generally a person has the duty to retreat before using deadly force if a person can safely do so. There are however certain exceptions to this duty to retreat, for instance when a person is in his own home and was not the initial aggressor in a confrontation.

 

           In this case Joe acted with deadly force in shooting Ron and Sam. Although he did not kill them, shooting at them with a firearm and wounding them is clearly sufficient. For Joe's actions to be justified, Sam and Ron must have been threatening him with deadly force. Joe's belief that they were there to kill him based on a prior threat is not enough. Here, Ron and Sam did nothing other than run at Joe. There is no indication that they possessed or brandished any dory of deadly weapon. Therefore, this action is not enough for a reasonable belief that Joe was being threatened with deadly force.

           

           Also, since Joe was not in his home and does not fit into any of the other exceptions, Joe had a duty to retreat before using deadly force if he could do so in a safe manner. The facts here state that Joe was getting into his car when the confrontation occurred. It seems therefore that he would be able to safely retreat. This also leads to the conclusion that Joe was not justified in using deadly force. Therefore, Joe could not use the defense of justification.

 

     (B)  (1)  The issue here is whether Ron and Sam had committed enough of a significant step toward the completion of an assault to justify a charge of attempt.

  

           Generally, a defendant can be charged with an attempt to complete a crime when he has the intent to complete the crime and has completed a significant step towards completion of the crime. Mere preparation is not enough however. The defendant must be judged to be dangerously close to completion of the crime. Thus, to be convicted of attempted assault the defendants must have had the intent to commit assault, which involves the impermissible touching of or offense with another, and complete a significant step towards that goal. 

 

            Here, Ron and Sam were asked to give a severe beating to Joe. If completed, this action would involve impermissible touching of Joe and thus would constitute assault. Thus, one can state that they had the requisite intent required for an attempt conviction. The question then arises whether the actions of searching for someone and then running toward them is enough to be a significant step toward completion. Given the facts, the act of running toward someone is past the stages of mere planning or preparation and part of the execution. It also serves to intimidate the witness and put a fear of bodily harm in him. Thus, in this case the defendants acted with the requisite intent to complete the crime of assault and completed a significant step in the commission of that crime. Thus, they could be found guilty of attempt to commit an assault.

 

            (2) The issue here is whether Ron and Sam can claim incompetency because they are age 15.

 

           In New York, generally people are held liable for their actions, but in some cases they may be judged incompetent. One of these is when they are underage. Generally, New York treats those aged 16 or older as adults in criminal cases, can convict those 14 and 15 of serious crimes, and those 13, 14 and 15 of second degree murder. Those younger than these ages must be dealt with via juvenile proceedings.

 

           Here, Ron and Sam are 15. Thus, they can only be convicted if they are charged with second degree murder or a "serious crime." Since murder is not applicable here, the question is whether attempt to commit assault is a serious offense. While they did not have any weapons, which works in their favor, they intended to give someone a "severe beating." This would seem enough to satisfy the question and thus Ron and Sam could be tried as adults.

      (C)  (1) The issue is whether Mark committed conspiracy. 

 

           To be convicted of conspiracy; (i) a defendant must have had a meeting of the minds to engage in criminal behavior with another person or persons, and (ii) someone in the conspiracy must have committed a step in furtherance of the conspiracy's goals. A defendant in NY can still be convicted even if the others in the conspiracy do not have the requisite intent to complete the crime.

 

           Here, Mark reached an agreement with Ron and Sam for them to beat Joe. This is a sufficient intent and meeting of the minds to engage in the criminal behavior of assault. The fact that Ron and Sam are underage does not save Mark since even if they were judged incompetent in New York, Mark can still be convicted for having the requisite intent. Ron and Sam then sought out Joe so that they could give him the beating (and ran at him when they found him). This is enough to satisfy the step in furtherance of the conspiracy. It need not be Mark that completes the step, merely someone in the conspiracy. Thus, Mark can be convicted for conspiracy. 

 

            (2) The issue is whether Mark can be convicted for solicitation. 

 

           Someone can be convicted for solicitation when they approach another with the intent of inducing the other person to engage in criminal behavior. 

 

           Here, Mark sought out Ron and Sam to convince them to give Joe a severe beating. Giving Joe a beating would constitute assault. Therefore, Mark can be convicted of soliciting Ron and Sam.

 

 

 

 

 

CONSTITUTIONAL LAW

Question Outline

 

 1.  Federal Commerce Power

 2.  Powers Of Congress

 3.  Equal Protection Clause- Suspect Classification

 4.  Equal Protection- Right To Marry

 5.  Powers Of Congress

 6.  State Police Powers

 7.  State Police Powers

 8.  Commerce Clause

 9.  Powers Of Congress

10.  Federal Jurisdiction

11.  Privileges And Immunities Clause

12.  Due Process Clause

13.  Fifth Amendment

14.  Standing

15.  Ripeness

16.  Impeachment

17.  Commercial Speech Doctrine

18.  Commercial Speech Doctrine

19.  Commercial Speech Doctrine

20.  Political Affiliation

21.  Use Immunity

22.  Article IV, Section 2

23.  Fourteenth Amendment

24.  Commerce Clause

25.  Vagueness

26.  Defamation- Right Of Reply

27.  State And Local Taxation

28.  Stream Of Commerce

29.  Commerce Clause

30.  State Police Powers

31.  Freedom Of Religion

32.  Freedom Of Religion

33.  Due Process Clause             

34.  Free Exercise Clause- Factors

35.  Freedom Of Religion- Free Exercise Clause

36.  Freedom Of Religion- Free Exercise Clause

37.  Ex Post Facto Law

38.  Bill Of Attainder

39.  The Thirteenth Amendment

40.  State Action

41.  Eleventh Amendment

42.  Suit Between States

43.  Freedom Of Association

44.  Equal Protection

45.  Contract Clause

46.  Federal Commerce Power

47.  Treaty

48.  Book Banning

49.  Censorial Laws

50.  Redrup Approach

51.  Freedom Of Association

52.  Freedom Of Association

53.  Right Not To Colleague

54.  Mandatory Fees

55.  Equal Protection- Drug Testing

56.  Right To Privacy- Drug Testing

57.  Separation Of Powers

58.  Right To Vote

59.  Voting- Strict Scrutiny

60.  Freedom Of Association

61.  Freedom Of Religion

62.  Constitutional Arguments- Anti-Sleeping Ordinances

63.  Right To Privacy- Drug Testing

64.  Equal Protection

65.  Right To Privacy- Factors To Weigh

66.  Vagueness

67.  Comparison Of Preemption With Commerce Clause

68.  Commerce Clause- Least Restrictive Alternative

69.  President's Attempt To Regulate Interstate Commerce

70.  Equal Protection- Race Classifications

71.  Equal Protection- Gender Classifications

72.  Equal Protection Classifications

73.  Tenth Amendment

74.  Voting Amendments

75.  Voting- Fundamental Right

76.  Legitimate State Interest

77.  Commerce Clause- Burden On Interstate Commerce

78.  Standing

79.  Free Exercise Clause

80.  Free Exercise Clause

81.  Privileges And Immunities Clause

82.  Privileges And Immunities Clause

83.  Right To Travel

84.  State Action

85.  Privileges And Immunities Clause

86.  Aliens- Equal Protection

87.  Aliens- Important Government Interest

88.  Aliens- Practice Of A Profession

89.  Speech Or Debate Clause

90.  Necessary Or Proper Clause

91.  Power To Declare War

92.  Full Faith And Credit Clause

93.  Interstate Rendition Clause

94.  Supremacy Clause

95.  Military Courts

96.  Federal Property

97.  Equal Protection- Illegitimacy

98.  Contract Clause

99.  State Police Power

100. Commerce Clause

 

 

 


 

CONSTITUTIONAL LAW

 

Question 1 is based on the following fact situation.

 

Florida Airlines flight #1286 was scheduled to fly from Los Angeles, California to Miami, Florida on Tuesday, October 16.  Janet, a resident of California, was scheduled to visit her grandmother in Miami, Florida for a one week vacation.  Janet was also scheduled to fly on Florida Airlines flight #1286.  The Florida bound plane departed on time and began its flight toward the southeast.  There was one stop in Houston, Texas and another in New Orleans, Louisiana.  Once the plane had completed its stop in New Orleans, Janet felt the strong desire to smoke a cigarette.  As such, she went back to the rear of the plane and lit up.

 

As Janet was enjoying her cigarette, she noticed a sign on the ceiling overhead which read, "Cigarette Smoking Is Illegal On This Flight."  Unbeknownst to Janet, Congress had passed a statute, only two months prior to her flight, which banned cigarette smoking on "all passenger and commercial airline flights within the United States."  Congress, in enacting the statute, felt that flights would be safer as the potential of starting an unwanted fire would be eliminated, or at least reduced.  Congress was presented results from a study which showed that eighty-seven percent of all fires on board aircraft resulted from the butts of cigarettes being disposed of in an improper fashion.  Congress also recognized and cited the Surgeon General's studies which indicated that, "Quitting smoking now greatly reduces serious risks to your health."  Furthermore, Congress stated, "There is no inherent right to smoke which is granted to citizens by the United States Constitution."

 

1.         Janet is charged with violating the statute making smoking illegal on the flight.  If Janet challenges this statute on constitutional grounds, the court should find the statute

 

(A)        Unconstitutional, as it takes away one's right to life, liberty and property in violation of the Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution.

 

(B)        Unconstitutional, as it takes away one's right to life, liberty, and property, in violation of the Fifth Amendment to the United States Constitution.

 

(C)        Constitutional, because Congress could find that the statute is in the public interest as it acts to protect the health, safety, and welfare of airline passengers.

 

(D)        Constitutional, because Congress is exercising its federal commerce power.

 

 

  

Question 2 is based on the following fact situation.

 

Sometime in July, 1990 problems arose in the Middle East when Iraq invaded Kuwait.  The United States, as well as several other countries around the world, became very upset with this invasion.  Acting to protect its own interests, the interests of other Middle Eastern countries, and to show its disapproval of Iraq's actions, the United States surrounded Iraq.  The United States militia, in the form of Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine troops were sent to the confrontation to maintain peace until this new Middle Eastern crisis could be resolved.  As negotiations took place, troops and supplies from other countries, as well as the United States, remained in place.

 

Although the United States did not declare war, the U.S. Government did raise and support an army and appropriated money to such use.  The United States Government also provided for organizing, arming, and disciplining these military troops and governed such part of them as may be employed in the service of the United States.  The U.S. Government also provided and maintained a navy during this period of time.

 

2.         Which United States Government body and/or official has the power to perform the above-described acts?

 

(A)        The President, acting alone.

 

(B)        The President, acting with the advice and consent of Congress.

 

(C)        The Congress.

 

(D)        All of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Questions 3 - 6 are based on the following fact situation - ESSAY. 

Penny was a group manager for a nationwide lobbying and governmental relations company (Company) located in State T, where she has resided for all of her life. She had worked for Company for 5 years, with excellent performance reviews. Penny also is a part-time student in a unique and highly prestigious graduate program leading to a Master’s degree in public administration, and she has completed all requirements for her Master’s degree except the required thesis. She has been working on her thesis on her assigned topic of waste in State S government for several years, but she still needs some additional data from State S to complete it. 

Penny submitted a written request to State S to obtain a copy of its fiscal records under the state’s Open Government Records Act (“OGRA”), to which she received the following response from the Secretary of Financial Affairs of State S: “Your request for State S fiscal records is DENIED for the following reason(s): you are not a citizen of State S.” 

State S’s OGRA provides, in pertinent part: “All public records shall be open for inspection and copying by any citizen of the State during regular business hours of the appropriate state agency.” The legislative history for this statute states that the purpose of the statute is to strengthen the political process by ensuring transparency and accountability in State S government by making its records available to its citizens who are eligible to vote. 

Penny needs the records as soon as possible to assist her in completing a project at work and because her participation in the graduate program will be terminated if she does not complete her thesis within the next three months. A Complaint was filed on Penny’s behalf in federal court in State S against appropriate defendants, alleging that the refusal to provide the requested records to Penny violated the Privileges & Immunities Clause of Article IV of the U.S. Constitution. After filing the Complaint, Penny’s counsel filed a Motion for Preliminary Injunction, and initial discovery revealed that Penny’s request was denied solely because she was not a citizen of State S. 

3.         What arguments should Penny’s counsel make to establish that the denial of State S records violated Penny’s rights under the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the federal Constitution, and with what likelihood of success?

 

4.         Assume for purposes of this question only that the court will find that Penny has a strong likelihood of success on the merits of her constitutional claim. What other elements must Penny establish to support her request for a preliminary injunction, and how should the court rule on such request? 

While the litigation over access to State S records was pending, Penny received notice by Company that her position as a manager had been eliminated as part of an overall 10% reduction in force (“RIF”). The following facts can be established: prior to the RIF Company had 100 employees, 10 of whom were women; 5 women were terminated by Company as part of the RIF; Penny was Company's only female manager; and male employees with less seniority than Penny were retained as managers by Company. A complex demographic study of governmental relations businesses performed in 2007 showed Company to be in the lowest 1% of similar companies for hiring and promoting women. 

As a result of her termination, after complying with the procedural requirements for bringing suit, Penny filed a Complaint against Company in federal court under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, alleging discrimination due to disparate treatment on the basis of her sex. Prior to trial, Penny’s former boss learned that Penny had not completed her graduate degree. When Penny had applied for her job, she told Company’s Director of Personnel that she had completed her Master’s degree, which was a requirement for her position, and a ground for which she would have been fired if it was discovered.  

5.        At trial when Penny’s counsel seeks to introduce the demographic study as evidence to support Penny’s claim of sex discrimination, Company objects on the grounds of relevance. What arguments should be made in support of the admission of the study, and how should the court rule? 

 

6.         Where did Congress get the power to establish such an office?  Assume that Penny established a prima facie case of discrimination and that Company’s reduction in force explanation was found to be a pretext for discrimination. What effect, if any, would the evidence of Penny’s misrepresentation of her academic qualifications have on Company’s ability to defend against her claim of discrimination, and on any remedy that could be obtained by Penny?

 

 

 

Question 7 is based on the following fact situation.

 

Congress passed legislation which established the United States Patent and Copyright Office.  This office is headquartered in Washington, D.C.  The purpose of this office is to provide a uniform system of keeping track of, and establishing rights to, inventions and written material. 

 

7.          Where did Congress get the power to establish such an office?

 

(A)        Congress' power to regulate commerce.

 

(B)        Congress' power to lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts, and excises.

 

(C)        Congress' power to promote science and useful arts.

 

(D)        Congress' power to enforce laws by appropriate legislation.

 

 

 

 

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CONSTITUTIONAL LAW ANSWERS

AND EXPLANATIONS

 

1.   (D) Congress has the power to regulate smoking on airplanes.  Congress, in enacting this federal statute, is exercising its federal commerce power.  Congress may enact a commerce-based criminal statute when, as here, the activity is related to interstate transactions.  While smoking may be proper in an airport terminal and other places, Congress may enact legislation which makes it illegal to smoke in an airplane.  Answer choice (C) is a correct statement but general statements such as this should not be preferred over an answer pick which states a correct rule of law or test which the court will apply.  Answer choices (A) and (B) are incorrect because they concern an unconstitutional taking of life, liberty, or property.  Under these facts, Congress' actions are proper and constitutional.

 

2.   (C) Article I, Section 8 of the United States Constitution grants to Congress certain powers.  All of the powers mentioned in this question are powers granted to Congress by the United States Constitution.  Thus, answer (C) is correct.  Under Article I, Section 8, Clause 12, Congress has the power "To raise and support Armies, but no Appropriation of Money to that Use shall be for a longer Term than two Years."  Under Article I, Section 8, Clause 13, Congress has the power "To provide and maintain a Navy."  Under Article I, Section 8, Clause 15, Congress has the power "To provide for calling forth the Militia to Bossute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions."  Finally, under Article I, Section 8, Clause 16, Congress has the power "To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States...."  Since Congress alone has all of these powers and The President's main role during wartime is to act as Commander in Chief of the Army and Navy, answer (C) is correct and all other choices are incorrect.

 

3.         Penny’s counsel should argue that State S’s denial of access to its records impairs protected rights, and that State S does not have a substantial reason for its denial that bears a substantial relation to the state’s goal. Penny will likely be successful in establishing a violation of the Privileges and Immunities Clause. 

 

           The Privileges & Immunities Clause of Article IV, § 2 of the United States Constitution provides: “[t]he citizens of each State shall be entitled to all Privileges and Immunities of Citizens in the several States.” It has generally been interpreted as preventing a state from discriminating against citizens of other states in favor of its own. Hague v. C.I.O., 307 U.S. 496, 511, 59 S.Ct. 954 (1939).

 

            The test to determine whether a State’s actions or policies violate the Privileges & Immunities Clause of Article IV requires a court to consider whether the policy at issue burdens a right protected by the Privileges & Immunities Clause, and whether the state has a “substantial reason” for the discriminatory practice and whether the degree of discrimination bears a close relation to the reason. Toomer v. Witsell, 334 U.S. 385, 68 S.Ct. 1156 (1948), United Building & Construction Trades v. Mayor and Council of Camden, et. al., 465 U.S. 208, 104 S.Ct. 1020 (1984), Supreme Court of New Hampshire v. Piper, 470 U.S. 274, 284, 105 S.Ct. 1272 (1985).

 

           Penny should argue that State S has discriminated against her by denying her access to its official records, and that such denial burdened her ability to complete work projects in the field of lobbying and governmental relations on the same basis as residents of State S, and to engage in the political process. 

 

            The pursuit of a common calling is one of the most fundamental of those privileges protected by the Privileges & Immunities Clause. City of Camden, supra. Penny’s inability to perform the functions of her work in the field of lobbying and governmental relations on the same basis as State S residents could be determined to affect her right to pursue a common calling. Toomer, supra., at 396, Lee v. Minner, 369 F.Supp. 2d 527 (D.Del. 2005), affirmed, 458 F.3d 194 (3d Cir. 2006). In the Lee case, a non-resident sought Delaware’s official records in order to carry out his profession as a consumer advocate and journalist. The District Court found that a citizen-only law violated plaintiff’s fundamental right “to practice his common calling…on the same terms and conditions” as residents. Id., 369 F.Supp.2d at 533. 

 

           Additionally, it is reasonable to assume that Penny and other residents of State T might be interested in State S’s government operations, and that governmental watchdog organizations, like Company, would have an interest in transparency and accountability in State S government. Penny could argue that her inability to investigate and question State S’s budget may be determined to be a burden on her ability to participate in political advocacy on matters of common public interest between the states. The court in Lee v. Minner found that a citizen’s only law violated plaintiff’s fundamental right “to engage in the political process with regard to matters of both national political and economic importance.” Id., 369 F.Supp.2d at 533. 

 

            If Penny’s rights are determined to be protected by the Privileges & Immunities Clause, State S must then establish that it has a “substantial reason” for exclusion of nonresidents from access to its official documents. State S must prove “…that there is an independent, valid reason for the discriminatory treatment of nonresidents, and that nonresidents are a ‘peculiar source of the evil at which the statute is aimed.’” Id., at 535, quoting Toomer, supra, 334 U.S. at 399. State S may be expected to argue that it wants to strengthen the political process by ensuring transparency and accountability in State S government for its citizens. 

 

           While ensuring transparency and accountability in government might be found to be a legitimate interest, it is unlikely that the state’s goal is substantially related to the means by which it seeks to achieve that goal. See Lee, supra, 458 F.3d at 201. Allowing non-citizens access to the same public information available to the citizens of State S does not impede or thwart such interest. Id. Moreover, since residents of other states may have a legitimate interest in State S governmental activities, wholesale exclusion of out-of-state residents from access to records is likely to be viewed as an obstacle to such goal. Indeed, Penny’s research on waste in State S government would certainly have been of interest to State S residents, thus furthering rather than hindering State S’s interest in increasing accountability and transparency in State S government. Accordingly, the court will likely find that OGRA violates Penny’s rights under the Privileges & Immunities Clause.

 

4.        In addition to a likelihood of success on the merits, Penny must establish that irreparable injury will result if the injunctive relief is not granted; that harm to Penny will outweigh harm to State S; and that the public interest will not be harmed if the preliminary injunction is granted. Penny will likely succeed in obtaining a preliminary injunction. 

 

           Preliminary injunctive relief is extraordinary relief, issued at the discretion of the trial court.  JSG Trading Corp. v. Tray-Wrap, Inc., 917 F.2d 75, 80 (2d Cir. 1990). Here, Penny is seeking to enjoin the enforcement of OGRA against her. This is considered to be a mandatory injunction that seeks to alter the status quo by commanding a positive act. Yu Juan Sheng v. City of New York, et al, 181 Fed. Appx. 38, 2006 U.S. App. LEXIS 11928 (2d Cir. 2006). 

 

           The criteria for the entry of a preliminary injunction are: (1) a likelihood of success on the merits; (2) irreparable harm resulting from denial of the relief sought; (3) the harm to the non-moving party if the relief is granted; and (4) the public interest. United States v. Bell, 238 F.Supp.2d 696 (M.D. Pa. 2003). Where the preliminary injunction is directed at providing mandatory relief, the burden on the moving party is particularly heavy. Punnett v. Carter, 621 F.2d 578 (3d Cir. 1980). 

 

           Since success on the merits is assumed, Penny must establish that she will be irreparably injured should the injunctive relief be denied, that the public interest will not be harmed by the preliminary injunction and that the harm to State S (from granting the requested injunction) will not be greater than the harm to Penny (should injunctive relief be denied). In support of these elements, she will allege irreparable injury due to her inability to complete her thesis should she be denied immediate access to State S financial records, which will cause her to be terminated from the unique and prestigious graduate program in which she is enrolled. She should further allege that it is in the public interest for her as a member of the public to gain access to State S fiscal records, and that State S will not be injured by the entry of preliminary injunctive relief. 

 

            It is likely that the court will grant a preliminary injunction. It is clear that the public interest will not be harmed by the granting of the injunction, and, in fact, it may further the public interest for such access to be granted so that the public may benefit from Penny’s research on waste in State S government. Additionally, State S will not be harmed if the preliminary injunction is granted because access to the records by Penny is currently merely restricted rather than eliminated under the statute. 

 

           Penny could obtain the records through other means if she were able to identify a State S resident willing to make the request for records on her behalf.

 

           Finally, it is likely that the court will find that Penny will sustain irreparable injury if a preliminary injunction does not issue. An irreparable injury is one that is of a peculiar nature so that money alone cannot compensate for it. Connors v. Shannopin Mining Co., 675 F.Supp. 986 (W.D. Pa. 1987). Most courts hold that when an alleged deprivation of a constitutional right is involved, no further showing of irreparable injury is necessary to support the grant of a preliminary injunction. McCormick v. Hirsch, 460 F. Supp. 1337 (M.D. Pa. 1978). Even if specific proof of irreparable injury were required, it is likely that Penny’s dismissal from the unique and prestigious graduate program for her failure to meet the program’s deadlines, would be viewed as warranting such extraordinary equitable relief, especially in light of the fact that she has been working on the research project for several years. See Faulkner v. Jones, et. al., 10 F.3d 226 (4th Cir. 1993). Penny’s Motion for a Preliminary Injunction will likely be granted.

 

5.        Penny’s counsel should argue that the demographic study is relevant to support Penny’s prima facie case of discrimination, and to support her argument that the reduction in force explanation for her dismissal was a pretext for discrimination.  The court will likely admit the study.

 

            In general, all relevant evidence is admissible. Rule 402, Fed. R. Evidence. Rule 401 of the Federal Rules of Evidence states that relevant evidence is “evidence having any tendency to make the existence of any fact that is of consequence to the determination of the action more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence.” 

 

           Here, Penny’s position was not filled by another individual; rather, the Company claims that Penny lost her job because of an overall reduction in force. Penny has filed an action based on disparate treatment and will argue that she was singled out for termination because she is female and that the reduction in force is a pretext for discrimination. Statistics can be relevant and important in a case of individual disparate treatment. Carmichael v. Birmingham Saw Works, 738 F.2d 1126 (11th Cir. 1984). 

 

           Statistical evidence that relates to an employer’s general policy and practice with respect to employment of individuals in the plaintiff’s protected class may be relevant to a showing of pretext because such statistics may be helpful to a determination of whether the employer’s action with respect to the plaintiff conformed to a general pattern of discrimination against individuals within the plaintiff’s protected class. See McDonnell Douglas Corporation v. Green, 411 U.S. 792, 93 S.Ct. 1817 (1973). Statistical studies, while not ordinarily dispositive, are relevant in establishing that the employer’s reason was a pretext for discrimination in an individualized hiring decision. Id. at 1826, Bruno v. W.B. Saunders Co., 882 F.2d 760 (3d Cir. 1989), cert. denied, 493 U.S. 1062, 110 S.Ct. 880 (1990). However, the probative value of statistical information in a disparate treatment case is limited because overall employment statistics have limited bearing on the specific intentions of the employer in making particular employment decisions. Bullington v. United Airlines Inc., 186 F.3d 1301 (10th Cir. 1999). Penny’s employer may seek to introduce other statistical evidence to diminish the probative value of the study.

 

          Penny should argue that statistical evidence of the percentage of Company’s female employees in comparison to other similarly situated employers in the area is relevant for purposes of establishing that the reduction in force was a pretext for discrimination because the statistical comparison shows that Company appears to have discriminated against women in its hiring and promotion decisions by virtue of its poor performance compared to other similar companies which were able to hire and retain significant percentages of women employees. 

 

            Penny could also argue that the statistical information is relevant to establishing a prima facie case of discrimination. While statistical information alone may not be sufficient to establish a prima facie case of disparate treatment, it can be relevant and important circumstantial evidence of discriminatory treatment. Smith v Horner, 839 F.2d 1530 (11th Cir. 1998), Kadas v. MCI Systemhouse Corporation, 255 F.3d 359 (7th Cir. 2001). She would offer the study as circumstantial evidence of Company’s discriminatory intent toward her, arguing that her termination conformed to a general practice of discrimination against women. 

 

           The court would likely overrule the objection and admit the statistical evidence as it supports Penny’s claim of discrimination, and it makes the allegation of pretext more probable because of Company’s overall hiring and promotion practices with respect to women.

 

6.        Since it appears that Company did not learn of Penny’s misrepresentation of her academic qualifications until after her dismissal, Company may not avoid liability for discrimination on that basis. However, since the misrepresentation would have justified Company in terminating her for failure to meet the requirements of the job, Penny would not be eligible for reinstatement. She would be eligible for back pay from the date of the discriminatory termination until the date Penny’s misrepresentation of her academic qualifications was discovered. 

 

            It was assumed for purposes of this question that a prima facie case of sex discrimination had been established by Penny, and that Company’s proffered reason of a reduction in force to support Penny’s dismissal was found to be a pretext for discrimination. Assuming, as it appears, that Company did not learn of Penny’s misrepresentation until after she was discriminatorily terminated, Penny’s employer will not be able to use evidence of her misrepresentation of her qualifications as an additional legitimate non-discriminatory reason for termination. 

 

           The Supreme Court in McKennon v. Nashville Banner Publishing Company, 513 U.S. 352, 115 S.Ct. 879 (1995), recognized that in defending against a claim of discrimination under the ADEA, an employer cannot claim that an employee was terminated for after-discovered misconduct because the employer could not have been motivated to terminate the employee for wrongdoing of which it had no knowledge at the time of the termination. The McKennon holding that after-acquired evidence does not provide immunity from liability for a claim of discrimination is applicable to Title VII claims, and to cases where the after-acquired evidence concerned the employee’s misrepresentations in a job application rather than misconduct during employment. See Wallace v. Dunn Construction Company, 62 F.3d 374 (11th Cir. 1995). 

 

           The after-acquired evidence of misconduct does bear on the remedy available to the terminated employee, and, as a general rule, neither reinstatement nor front pay is an appropriate remedy in such circumstances. McKennon, supra., Wallace, supra. In cases where, as here, the after-acquired evidence was of such severity that it would have led to termination of the employee had the employer known about it, back pay generally will be limited to the period from the date of the unlawful discharge to the date the evidence of misconduct was discovered. McKennon, supra., Wallace, supra. The rationale for the rule is that the employer should not be impeded in the exercise of legitimate prerogatives and the employee should not be placed in a better position than she would have occupied absent the discrimination. Shattuck v. Kinetic Concepts, Inc., 49 F.3d 1106 (5th Cir. 1995).  

 

           The facts establish that a graduate degree was a requirement for Penny’s position, and that she would have been terminated if her misrepresentation of her qualifications had been discovered. Penny will prevail in her claim of discriminatory termination since she established a prima facie case of discrimination, which was not rebutted by the existence of a legitimate non-discriminatory reason, but she will only be eligible for an award of back pay, and will not be entitled to reinstatement or front pay.

 

7.   (C) Article I, Section 8, Clause 8 grants to Congress the power "To promote the Progress of Science and useful Arts, by securing for Limited Times to Authors and Inventors the exclusive Right to their respective Writings and Discoveries."  Thus, answer (C) is correct.  Answer choices (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect because, although these might be powers Congress can exercise, these are not the specific grants of power which give Congress the right to establish the United States Patent and Copyright Office.  Note also that answer choice (D) states "Congress' power to enforce laws...."  This does not say "enact laws."  Thus, it is not a correct answer.  This question calls for an answer which grants to Congress the power to "enact" the appropriate legislation which establishes the Patent and Copyright Office.  This illustration points out the fact that the Multistate Bar Examination is as much a reading comprehension examination as it is a legal examination.  You must always keep alert to key words when you read each fact pattern and answer choice.

 

Last updated:  October 25, 2008

 

 

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